BIOL 1104 AV. Come to the PASS workshop with your mock exam complete. During the workshop you can work with other students to review your work.

Transcription

1 It is most beneficial to you to write this mock exam UNDER EXAM CONDITIONS. This means: Complete the exam in 1.5 hour(s). Work on your own. Keep your notes and textbook closed. Attempt every question. After the time limit, go back over your work with a different colour or on a separate piece of paper and try to do the questions you are unsure of. Record your ideas in the margins to remind yourself of what you were thinking when you take it up at PASS. The purpose of this mock exam is to give you practice answering questions in a timed setting and to help you to gauge which aspects of the course content you know well and which are in need of further development and review. Use this mock exam as a learning tool in preparing for the actual exam. Please note: Come to the PASS workshop with your mock exam complete. During the workshop you can work with other students to review your work. Often, there is not enough time to review the entire exam in the PASS workshop. Decide which questions you most want to review the Facilitator may ask students to vote on which questions they want to discuss in detail. Facilitators do not bring copies of the mock exam to the session. Please print out and complete the exam before you attend. Facilitators do not produce or distribute an answer key for mock exam. Facilitators help students to work together to compare and assess the answers they have. If you are not able to attend the PASS workshop, you can work alone or with others in the class. Good Luck writing the Mock exam!! Dates and locations of mock exam take-up: First take-up: April 13 th 2018: 12-2pm (ME 3380) Second take-up: April 14 th 2018: 12-2pm (ME 3380) Office hours: April 14 th 2018: 3-4pm (ML 402)

2 Total grade ( /50) Unit 1: Evolution ( /15) 1. What two pieces of information are required to calculate the inbreeding coefficient? I. Number of common ancestors II. Inbreeding coefficient of each common ancestor III. Total number of ancestors IV. Path length of each common ancestor a. I and II b. II and III c. III and IV d. I and IV 2. Which of the following is NOT an example of frequency dependent selection? a. Müllerian mimicry b. Batesian mimicry c. Directional selection d. All are examples of frequency dependent selection 3. Reproductive failure after the F2 generation due to incompatibility between interacting genes is known as: a. Hybrid infertility b. Hybrid inviability c. Hybrid breakdown d. Hybrid viability

3 4. Androdioecies populations where most of the individuals are hermaphrodites that reproduce via self-fertilization challenges which species concept? a. Biological species b. Morphological species c. Ecological species d. Reproductive species 5. Selection where multiple alleles are actively maintained in a gene pool is known as: a. Directional selection b. Disruptive selection c. Stabilizing selection d. Balancing selection 6. If two populations exist in adjacent niches from one another while continuing to exchange alleles occasionally but undergoing speciation at the same time, what type of speciation is occurring? a. Allopatric speciation b. Peripatric speciation c. Parapatric speciation d. Sympatric speciation 7. The eyes of a squid versus the eyes of a human are what type of traits? a. Homoplasies b. Homologous c. Pre-adaptations d. Allometric

4 8. Axolotls (colloquially referred to as Mexican salamanders) have gills and fins that are considered juvenile features in most amphibians. What evolutionary mechanism is at play here? a. Allometric growth b. Pre-adaptations c. Transitional species d. Heterochrony 9. Which of the following is considered the null hypothesis to evolution? a. The hardy-weinberg equilibrium b. All alleles have equal fitness c. There are no mutations in a population d. All mating is non-random 10. Reproductive isolation where the sperm of one species cannot recognize the eggs of another species due to genetic dissimilarity is a type of: a. Prezygotic isolation b. Zygotic isolation c. Postzygotic isolation d. None of the above 11. If you ran a statistical test and found a p-value of 0.06, is your data significant? a. No, because it does not meet the alpha value b. No, because the alpha value is always 0.05 c. Yes, because it is lower than your alpha value d. Depends on what level of significance you are using in your test

5 12. A new gene that holds a new function (not found in the common ancestor) is best known as a: a. Orthologous gene b. Paralogous gene c. Homologous gene d. None of the above 13. A set of organisms that have been grouped together without sharing an immediate common ancestor is best known as: a. Monophyly b. Paraphyly c. Polyphyly d. None of the above 14. The group that serves as a reference point for determining evolutionary relationships is best known as: a. Sister group b. Outgroup c. Ingroup d. Major clade 15. Some humans that migrated out of Africa had a significantly reduced gene pool and only mated amongst themselves. What would you expect to happen to the gene pool of these migrating populations? a. Alleles would be lost b. Alleles would remain the same c. Alleles would be gained d. Alleles would be introduced from neighboring populations

6 Unit 2: Ecology ( /15) 16. What is the name of the phenomenon that causes wind speeds to curve as you move up or down in latitude? a. Langmuir streaks b. Perturbation amplification c. Coriolis effect d. Adiabatic expansion 17. Atmospheric convection cells have the greatest effect on what physical aspect to a climate? a. Moisture b. Temperature c. Species diversity d. Water salinity 18. What region would you expect to have the highest biological stress? a. High temperature, high salinity, moderate moisture b. Low temperature, low salinity, low moisture c. Moderate temperature, low salinity, high moisture d. Low temperature, moderate salinity, high moisture 19. What type of adaptations would you most likely NOT find in a tundra plant? a. Small b. Sparse foliage c. Succulent d. Sun-tracking

7 20. Which of the following are true about a clumped population dispersion? I. Index of dispersion > 1 II. Occurs as a result of habitat selection III. Occurs as a result of interspecific competition IV. Occurs as a result of limited resources a. II and IV b. III and IV c. I, II, III d. I, II, III, IV 21. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for exponential growth to occur? a. Abundance of resources b. Overlapping generations c. Density independent d. Fast reproductive time 22. What type of conflict is a result of population size reaching carrying capacity? a. Interspecific competition b. Intraspecific competition c. Interference competition d. Exploitative competition 23. When r > 0, what is occurring in a population? a. Decrease in per capita growth rate b. No change in per capita growth rate c. Increase in per capita growth rate d. Population size is unaffected

8 24. If the linkage density is close to one, what type of food web is likely? a. Specialist b. Generalist c. Bottom-up d. Top-down 25. Which of the following is a density dependent stress factor? I. Predation II. Intraspecific competition III. Mutualism IV. Natural disasters a. I and II b. II and III c. III and IV d. I, II, and III 26. Which organism is most characteristic of the benthic-based macrophytic foodweb? a. Piscivorous fish b. Phytoplankton c. Zooplankton d. Periphyton 27. What type of competition involves direct aggressive attempts to remove another individual from a particular habitat? a. Interference competition b. Exploitative competition c. Interspecific competition d. Direct competition

9 28. Ocean acidification has: I. Shifted the equilibrium between CO2, HCO3 -, and CO3 2- II. Removed dissolved inorganic carbon from the ocean CO2 equilibrium III. Damaged the chlorophyll by denaturing the protein transporters IV. Altered the chemical gradient that allows HCO3 - to enter the green algae a. I, II, & III b. II, III, & IV c. Only I & IV d. All of the above 29. In environments with low and high disturbance rates (respectively), what reproductive strategies are of optimal fitness? a. Low disturbance: Type I, High disturbance: Type III b. Low disturbance: Type III, High disturbance: Type I c. Low disturbance: Type I, High disturbance: Type II d. Low disturbance: Type II, High disturbance: Type III 30. The ecological heartbeat is fastest on what level? a. Upper level b. Intermediate level c. Lower level d. Rate of change is the same on all levels

10 Unit 3: Diversity of Life ( /20) 31. Which of the following are true about SuperGroups? I. Protists are only found in Excavata and SAR II. Plants are only found in Archaeplastida III. Fungi are only found in Unikonta IV. Animals are only found in Unikonta a. I, II, III b. I, II, IV c. II, III, IV d. All statements are true 32. Which SuperGroup is characterized by eukaryotes lacking or with a modified mitochondria? a. Excavata b. SAR c. Archaeplastida d. Unikonta 33. Which of the following is NOT a common characteristic of Protists? a. Shared common ancestor b. Eukaryotic c. Unicellular d. Multicellular without a specialized tissue 34. An endosymbiotic event where a eukaryotic cell is engulfed by another eukaryotic cell would be considered a: a. Primary endosymbiosis b. Secondary endosymbiosis c. Tertiary endosymbiosis d. Eukaryotic endosymbiosis

11 35. What lineage of algae did some species of the SAR SuperGroup obtain their plastids from? a. Green algae b. Golden algae c. Brown algae d. Red algae 36. The engulfment of a cyanobacteria by archaeplastida was what kind of endosymbiotic event? What organelle did it lead to? a. Primary, mitochondria b. Secondary, mitochondria c. Primary, chloroplast d. Secondary, chloroplast 37. What clade is considered the closest living relative and shares the most recent common ancestor to all living animals? a. Choanoflagellates b. Fungi c. Slime moulds d. Entamoebas 38. Which is the most basal animal phylum containing true tissues (Eumetazoans) a. Porifera b. Ctenophora c. Cnidarian d. Chordata

12 39. Coral is a species of animal belonging to which phylum? a. Porifera b. Ctenophora c. Cnidarian d. Acoela 40. Which of the following statements about animal phyla are true? I. Acoela is the most basal triploblastic phylum (containing an endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm) II. Porifera is the most basal eumetazoan phylum III. Deuterostomes exhibit radial cleavage and intermediate cleavage IV. Earthworms and roundworms belong to the phylum Arthropoda a. I, III b. II, IV c. I, II, III d. II, III, IV 41. True or false: Insects share a more recent common ancestor with lobsters than with roundworms or eathworms a. True b. False 42. Out of the following phyla, which of the following share the most recent common ancestor with Chordates (our phylum) a. Echinodermata b. Nematoda c. Arthropoda d. Mollusca

13 43. Which of the following are derived characteristics of Chordates? I. Notochord II. Dorsal hollow nerve cord III. Pharyngeal slits IV. Post-anal tail a. I, II b. I, II, IV c. II, III, IV d. I, II, III, IV 44. Jawed vertebrates belong to which clade? a. Agnatha b. Gnathostomes c. Osteichthyans d. Chondrichthyes 45. Which of the following clades indicates a complex nervous system? a. Chordata b. Deuterostomia c. Craniates d. Vertebrates 46. The first clade believed to be capable of terrestrial life, or with the capability to walk on land (possibly to temporarily escape from marine predators) a. Gnathostomes b. Ray-finned fish c. Tetrapods d. Amphibians

14 47. The clade Chondrichthyes includes sharks, rays, and other cartilaginous fish: a. True b. False 48. What is the correct sequence of derived metazoan characteristics from choanoflagellates to chordates? a. Choanocytes, true tissue, bilateral symmetry, deuterostomia, notochord b. True tissue, bilateral symmetry, deuterostomia, choanocytes, notochord c. Bilateral symmetry, deuterostomia, choanocytes, true tissue, notochord d. Deuterostomia, choanocytes, true tissue, bilateral symmetry, notochord 49. What is the correct sequence of derived characteristics from early chordates to mammals? a. Bony endoskeleton, notochord, skull, jaws, bony endoskeleton, vertebrae, rod-shaped bones, limbs that support weight, amniotic egg, mammary gland b. Notochord, skull, jaws, bony endoskeleton, vertebrae, limbs that support weight, rod-shaped bones, limbs that support weight, amniotic egg, mammary gland c. Notochord, jaws, skull, vertebrae, rod-shaped bones, bony endoskeleton, amniotic egg, limbs that support weight, mammary gland d. Notochord, skull, vertebrae, jaws, bony endoskeleton, rod-shaped bones, limbs that support weight, amniotic egg, mammary gland 50. What is the correct sequence of derived characteristics from early mammals to modern humans? a. Mammary gland, digits for grasping, nails, complex placenta, developed cerebral cortex, bipedal locomotion, upright posture b. Mammary gland, digits for grasping, nails, complex placenta, bipedal locomotion, developed cerebral cortex, upright posture c. Mammary gland, complex placenta, developed cerebral cortex, digits for grasping, bipedal locomotion, nails, upright posture d. Mammary gland, complex placenta, digits for grasping, nails, developed cerebral cortex, bipedal locomotion, upright posture