DO NOT OPEN THE EXAMINATION PAPER UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD BY THE SUPERVISOR TO BEGIN

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1 EXAMINATION NUMBER DO NOT OPEN THE EXAMINATION PAPER UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD BY THE SUPERVISOR TO BEGIN BIOLOGY 3201 PUBLIC EXAMINATION November, 2001 Value: 100 marks Time: 3 hours GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS Candidates are required to do all items. This examination consists of the following parts: Part I - 75 multiple choice - 75% Part II - constructed response - 25% Answers to multiple choice items are to be shaded on the computer scorable answer sheet. All other items are to be answered in this booklet. Be sure to write your Examination Number in the space provided above. Rough work may be done in any blank spaces in Part I and on the blank spaces throughout Part II. REGULATIONS FOR CANDIDATES Candidates are expected to be thoroughly familiar with all regulations pertaining to their conduct during the examinations. These were explained by the chief supervisor prior to the first session, and have been posted for further reference near the entrance to the examination room. Candidates should ensure that they understand and comply with all requirements governing the following matters: ) Materials required ) Use of pen or pencil ) Punctuality ) Use of unauthorized means, and penalties ) Leaving the room ) Completion of required information ) Use of answer booklets ) Materials not permitted ) Use of handheld calculator ) Communication and movement during the examination

2 PART I SECTION A Total Value: 75% Shade in the letter of the correct answer on the computer scorable answer sheet. 1. Which biome has epiphytes? taiga temperate deciduous forest tropical rain forest tundra 2. Epiphytes have evolved to maximize their usage of which abiotic factor? carbon dioxide minerals sunlight water 3. Which ocean zone is NOT exposed to light? abyssal bathyal intertidal subtidal 4. Which BEST describes a grasshopper? 1 st order consumer 2 nd order consumer decomposer producer 5. Which relationship benefits both members? competition mutualism parasitism predation 6. What term refers to a lake changing to a swamp and then to dry land? biome formation eutrophication thermocline succession 7. Why are green plants important to animals? They consume food and give off oxygen. They consume food and give off carbon dioxide. They produce food and give off oxygen. They produce food and give off carbon dioxide. 8. Which cycle involves the activity of bacteria within the roots of legumes (clover, beans, etc.)? carbon-oxygen water phosphorus nitrogen 1 of 18

3 9. Which statement is TRUE of the marine biome? It covers less than 50% of the Earth s surface. It has little biodiversity. It is more stable than the terrestrial biomes. It is driven by geothermal energy. 10. Which terrestrial biome maintains the MOST stable temperature and the poorest soil fertility? desert grassland taiga tropical rain forest 11. Which ecosystem will change the MOST, through natural means, over a long period of time? desert forest pond ocean 12. What is TRUE of any ecosystem? Both energy and materials are recycled. Neither energy nor materials are recycled. Only energy is recycled. Only materials are recycled. 13. Which is NOT essential to the survival of an ecosystem? autotrophs decomposers omnivores source of energy 14. If 1000 J of sunlight energy is stored in the plant, how much energy will normally pass to the herbivore? 1 J 10 J 100 J 1000 J 15. Which marine zone would have the LOWEST rates of primary productivity (photosynthesis)? abyssal intertidal neritic pelagic 16. Which ecological unit incorporates abiotic factors? community ecosystem population species 2 of 18

4 17. Why are polar regions cooler than the equator? Sunlight strikes the poles at low angles. There is more ice at the poles. The poles are farther from the sun. The poles have thicker atmosphere. 18. Because of sudden dune erosion, cold salt water begins to mix with the warm fresh water in a pond. Which BEST describes the response of organisms to this change? Fish would evolve higher metabolic rates. Invertebrates would survive. Most organisms would be unable to survive the change. Organisms with cell walls would survive. 19. Which term BEST describes the growth from point B to point C biotic growth equilimited growth exponential growth limited growth 20. To which Kingdom does an organism belong if it has chloroplasts, is multicellular, and has cells with a cell wall? Animalia Monera Plantae Protista 21. Which is NOT a function of the stem of a plant? It represents part of the gametophyte generation. It supports leaves and reproductive organs into the air. It transports water, minerals and food between the roots and the leaves. Some stems are modified to carry out photosynthesis. 22. Why are mollusks considered to be more advanced than cnidarians? absence of a coelon an improved digestive system they have radial symmetry they possess nematocysts 3 of 18

5 23. What is the highest rate of reproduction possible for a population (under ideal conditions) called? biotic potential carrying capacity cyclic extinction environmental resistance 24. Why is the human population still in the exponential growth phase? Humans have incredible biotic potential. Mankind has the ability to control disease around the world. Mankind has unlimited resources world wide. The human population has not reached the carrying capacity. 25. According to the hormone levels indicated in the graph below, at what time should this woman release her egg? A B C D 26. Which statement BEST describes the animal population growth curve? exponential curve straight line J shaped curve S shaped curve 27. What occurs in the uterus of mammals? development of embryos fertilization production of milk storage of food 28. What causes the shedding of the uterine lining in the human menstrual cycle? Implantation and pregnancy are successful. Progesterone levels decrease. Progesterone levels remain high. The corpus luteum is maintained. 4 of 18

6 29. A major change that occurred in the evolution of plants from their algae ancestors was the origin of a multicellular diploid stage. What advantage would this provide? enhanced potential for independence of the diploid stage from the haploid stage increased gamete production increased fertilization rate increased spore production from each fertilization event. 30. Which statement BEST describes stage 1 in the demographic transition model of human population growth? Birth rate and death rate are high so the population grows very slowly. Death rates exceeds birth rate and the population declines. Improvements in living conditions result in a high birth rate having a positive effect. Improvements in living conditions result in a reduced death rate and the population grows. 31. Based on developmental trends, which represents the simplest phylum? arthropods cnidarians echinoderms flat worms 32. During fertilization of an Angiosperm, both sperm cells move through the pollen tube. Which statements BEST describes what happens to these sperm? Both pass through the micropyle into the ovule, with both fertilizing the egg. Both pass through the micropyle into the ovule, with one fertilizing the egg and the other dying. Both pass through the micropyle into the ovule, with one fertilizing the egg and the other fusing with the polar nuclei Only one passes through the micropyle into the ovule to fertilize the egg. 33. The major groups of land plants includes mosses, ferns, and the seed plants (gymnosperm and angiosperms). Which group of plants has a dominant gametophyte generation? angiosperms ferns gymnosperms mosses 34. Why are both mosses and ferns limited to a wet habitat? Neither mosses nor ferns have vascular tissue. Their sperm are protected within pollen grains that are carried by wind or insects. Their sperm have flagella so water is required for reproduction. They both produce seeds and water is required for seed germination. 5 of 18

7 35. Which structure helps keep the temperature of the testicles slightly lower than normal body temperature? W X Y Z 36. Which characteristic is found in birds but not in placental mammals? closed circulatory system external development four-chambered heart internal fertilization 37. Which is the correct sequence for the passage of the sperm from the time it is ejaculated into the female until it fertilizes the egg? vagina cervix oviduct uterus vagina cervix uterus oviduct vagina oviduct cervix uterus vagina oviduct uterus cervix 38. Which statement BEST describes the result of meiosis? Four cells, each with one-half the chromosomes of the original cell. Four cells, each with double the chromosomes of the original. Two cells, each with one-half the chromosomes of the original cell. Two cells with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. 39. During which phase of mitosis do chromosomes line up at the cell s equator? anaphase metaphase prophase telophase 40. Which results from nondisjunction? colour blindness Down s Syndrome Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy Hemophilia 41. Which is NOT involved in the synthesis of protein? centrioles messenger RNA ribosomes transfer RNA 6 of 18

8 42. What directs the formation of mrna? ATP DNA proteins ribosomes 43. What is a sudden change in the genetic material? a gene a meiosis a mitosis a mutation 44. What is one reason for Mendel s success with genetic studies of garden peas? He discovered the sources of variations in peas. He studied large numbers of offspring. He used only hybrid pea plants. He used peas with large chromosomes. 45. Which trait is a result of multiple alleles? baldness blood type colour blindness Hemophilia 46. Which of Mendel s Laws is illustrated by the fact that the height of the plant does not affect the colour of the seeds? Dominance Independent Assortment Genetic Inheritance Segregation 47. Which phenotype ratio results from a mating of two organisms heterozygous for each of two particular traits? 3 : 1 9 : 3 :3 : 1 1 : 2 :1 1 : 1 : 1 : The coat of shorthorn cattle, may be red, white, or roan (red-white mix). Crosses between red bulls and white cows produce only roan colored offspring. What do the alleles for coat color in shorthorn cattle demonstrate? crossing over codominance nondisjunction sex-linkage 7 of 18

9 49. Which diagram below shows crossing over of the original chromosomes shown to the right? 50. Why does the fertilized egg contain the same number of chromosomes as the body cells of the parents? Meiosis occurs during the process of egg and sperm production. Mitosis occurs during the process of egg and sperm production. When the fertilized egg divides, meiosis reduces the number of chromosomes. When the fertilized egg divides, mitosis reduces the number of chromosomes. 51. What is the result of DNA exposure to radiation? mutation replication termination transformation 52. In which process would a cell divide to form four genetically unique cells? meiosis I only meiosis II only mitosis only mitosis and meiosis I 53. Three women gave birth to children in the same hospital at the same time. The babies are mixed up in the nursery. The hospital checked the blood type of the parents and children and the following data was obtained: Parent Blood Type Baby Blood Type Father Mother Smiths A B Jane O Jones AB O Bob B Olsons A A Joan AB Who could have produced Baby Bob with blood type B? either the Smiths or Jones only the Jones only the Olsons only the Smiths 8 of 18

10 First Letter U C A G Use the following table to answer question 54 and 55 Amino Acids coded by RNA Condons Second Letter U C A G UUU Phenylalanine UCC UAC UGC C UCU UAU UGU U Tyrosine Cysteine UUC Serine UUA UCA UAA Stop Codon UGA Stop Codon A Leucine UUG UCG UAG Stop Codon UGG Tryptophan G CUU CCU CAU CGU U Histidine CUC CCC CAC CGC C Leucine Proline Arginine CUA CCA CAA CGA A Glutamine CUG CCG CAG CGG G AUU ACU AAU AGU U Asparagine Serine AUC Isoleucine ACC AAC AGC C Threonine AUA ACA AAA AGA A Lysine Arginine AUG Initiation ACG AAG AGG Codon G GUU GCU GAU Aspartic GGU U GUC GCC GAC Acid GGC C Valine Alanine Glycine GUA GCA GAA Glutamic GGA A GUG GCG GAG Acid GGG G 54. A central portion of a gene has the sequence: GAA ACC CGC. What would be the sequence of amino acids coded by this gene? glutamic acid - threonine - arginine leucine - glutamine - arginine leucine - tryptophan - alanine valine - glutamine - alanine 55. The initial sequence of DNA is GGA CAC. A mutation occurred changing the sequence to ATC CAC. Which of these situations would result? Protein synthesis would not occur. The amino acid sequence proline - valine would be produced. The amino acid sequence isoleucine - valine would be produced. The encoding would start again where the mutation occurred. 56. What is the genotype of individual B-5? WW only Ww only ww only WW or ww 9 of 18

11 57. One strand of a DNA molecule has nucleotides arranged in the sequence, G - A - C - T. What is the most likely order of the nucleotides of the other strand? A - C - T - A C - T - G - A T - C - A - G U - C - A - G 58. Which type of evolutionary evidence is indicated by the fact that human diabetes can be treated using insulin from a cow? adaptive radiation comparative anatomy comparative biochemistry comparative embryology 59. No human being has ever seen a dinosaur. What is the BEST evidence that dinosaurs once lived? fossils pictures in museums pictures on the walls of caves present animals that have evolved from them 60. What does the presence of gill slits in all vertebrate embryos possibly indicate? They are actually fish. They breathe through these gill slits before birth. They may have had a similar evolutionary ancestor. They are related to echinoderms. 61. Which BEST describes homologous structures? analogous organs with a similar function but a different origin organs with similar origin but may have different function vestigal 62. Who would have most likely stated: The tendency for organisms to overpopulate their environment provides a struggle for existence in which the best adapted individuals survive and reproduce a process I call natural selection? Darwin Malthus Miller Oparin 63. A Galapagos Island species had just recently migrated from the mainland. What would they look like? a desert species a species adapted for island living exactly like the mainland species not resemble the mainland species 64. Who performed an experiment (1950) showing that it is possible for amino acids (life compounds) to be produced from a mixture of methane, ammonia and water vapor? Darwin Lamarck Miller Oparin 10 of 18

12 65. Why would assuming life on earth had an extraterrestrial origin NOT solve the mystery of the origin of life? We don t know how it could have gotten to earth. We don t know how it will get back home. We don t know where in the universe it came from. We still don t know how it originated. 66. Who would argue that a strong child would be born because its father had practiced weight-lifting? Darwin De Vris Lamarck Linnaeus 67. In areas of heavy insecticide (DDT) use, fly populations may show marked resistance to the DDT over a period of time. How would Darwin most likely explain this observation? a change in the gene frequencies inheritance of acquired characteristics natural selection overproduction of a species 68. Who would argue that humans will evolve bigger noses because big-nosed people have a survival advantage over small-nosed people? Darwin Lamarck Linnaeus Malthus 69. What must be present for speciation to occur? abundance of predators high competition isolating factors short supply of biological needs 70. During a laboratory investigation students determined that 96% of the school population exhibited the dominant trait. What is the gene frequency for the dominant allele within this population? 20% 40% 60% 80% Do EITHER Section B or C 11 of 18

13 PART I SECTION B Fishery Total Value: 5% Do EITHER Section B or Section C 71. What is a semi-enclosed costal body of water that has a free connection with the open sea called? delta estuary river tidal zone 72. The removal of which species would have the greatest negative impact on the cod population? blue mussel capelin mackerel seal 73. What is an example of a seal s adaptation to its cold, watery environment? keen eye sight slowed heart rate webbed feet whiskers 74. What factor MOST likely caused the population of northern cod to decline? change in water temperature infestation by cod worm over fishing by humans pollution from industrial waste 75. Which zone of the ocean is MOST affected by the action of waves and tides? abyssal intertidal littoral pelagic 12 of 18

14 PART I SECTION C Forestry Total Value: 5% Do EITHER Section B or Section C 76. A spruce budworm feeds on a fir tree. What term is used to define the role of the spruce budworm? decomposer herbivore predator scavenger 77. Which statement about taxonomic keys is INCORRECT? Microscopes are always needed to use a key. They are usually dichotomous. They can be used only for plants, animals, and fungi. They describe and classify organisms. 78. Which tree harvesting technique is most commonly used in Newfoundland? clearcutting highgrading salvage cutting shelterwood cutting 79. What category of wetlands form along streams and ponds and are dominated by sedges and grasses? bog fern marsh swamp 80. What is the MOST likely tree that will grow back in an area burned by a forest fire? balsam fir black spruce pine white spruce 13 of 18

15 Do ALL questions in this part. PART II Total Value: 25% Value 1 81a. How did Mendel show that the Blend Theory of Genetics is incorrect? 1 b. What is the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis? 1 c. Why are sex-linked traits more common in men than in women? Tall plants (T) are dominant over short plants (t). Green leaves (G) are dominant over spotted leaves (g). Determine the genotypic ratio and phenotypic ratio of a cross between a tall, green plant homozygous for both traits, and a tall, green plant heterozygous for both traits. Show all work. The genotypic ratio is: The phenotypic ratio is: 14 of 18

16 Value 83. Explain why the concept of gene linkage does not fit well into Mendel s Law of forest. 1 Lamarck s thinking about evolution revolved around two basic assumptions. List these two assumptions. 15 of 18

17 Value 2 85b. Describe an example to illustrate how the Hardy - Weinberg Law can be used to measure evolutionary change. 1 c. How would Lynn Margulis have explained the evolution of eukaryotic organisms? 2 86a. Describe the role of estrogen and progesterone in controlling the human female menstrual cycle. 1 b. Describe one reason why the human population has not reached its carrying capacity. 16 of 18

18 Value 3 Describe any THREE successful form of plant life on earth. Do 86 OR FISHERY Value 86. A rocky sea shore is a complex part of the marine biome which is sub-divided into three THREE zones and describe any.

19 FORESTRY Value 3 87a A local logging company wants to maximize the growth of a forest area that it has just bought. List TWO silviculture practices that the company could use to maximize yield and give a brief description of ONE of these. 2 b In Newfoundland, biological controls have sometimes been used to control insect pests. State ONE advantage and ONE disadvantage of this type of control method. 18 of 18

Objective: You will be able to justify the claim that organisms share many conserved core processes and features.

Objective: You will be able to justify the claim that organisms share many conserved core processes and features. Do Now: Read Enduring Understanding B Essential knowledge: Organisms share many conserved