Biology 155 Practice FINAL EXAM

Transcription

1 Biology 155 Practice FINAL EXAM 1. Which of the following is NOT necessary for adaptive evolution? a. differential fitness among phenotypes b. small population size c. phenotypic variation d. heritability of fitness differences 2. Which ordering of the steps in the scientific method is a. test, observation, question, hypothesis, conclusion b. hypothesis, question, test, prediction, observation, conclusion c. observation, question, hypothesis, prediction, test, conclusion d. observation, question, prediction, hypothesis, test, conclusion 3. In comparison to non-radioactive isotopes of an element, the radioactive (heavy) isotopes have a. more protons b. more neutrons c. more electrons d. more protons and neutrons 4. Which statement about chemical bonds is NOT a. ionic bonds dissociate readily in water b. covalent bonds result when two atoms share electrons c. ionic bonds are stronger than covalent bonds d. hydrogen bonds form between atoms with weak charge differences 5. Molecules of water are polar because a. electrons are more likely in orbit around the oxygen nucleus b. covalent bonds form between water molecules c. water is liquid at room temperature d. electrons are more likely in orbit around the two hydrogen nuclei. 6. Which statement about oxidation-reduction reactions is NOT a. NAD is reduced in glycolysis b. oxygen is oxidized in the electron transport system c. water is oxidized in the light reactions of photosynthesis d. NADPH is oxidized in the dark reactions of photosynthesis Name 7. Proteins have many important functions. Which is NOT normally an important function of proteins? a. energy storage b. information transfer c. structural support d. genetic regulation 8. Lipids have many important functions. Which is NOT an important function of lipids? a. membrane structure b. hormones c. energy storage d. catalyzing biological reactions 9. Which pair below is NOT a correct pairing of building blocks and larger molecules? Building block Macromolecule a. thymine sterol b. methionine polypeptide c. glucose cellulose d. glycerol triglyceride 10. Which statement about the movement of materials through membranes is NOT a. water moves through membranes from areas of higher water concentration to areas of lower water concentration b. polar molecules move through membranes more easily than nonpolar molecules c. many substances move through membranes only with the aid of proteins imbedded in the membrane d. in chemiosmosis, the higher H+ concentrations on the outside of the inner thylakoid membrane are established by active transport 11. Which statement about enzymes is NOT a. they lower the activation energy of a reaction b. they change the G of a reaction c. they make products form more quickly d. their ability to catalyze reactions may depend on the temperature of their environment

2 12. For the reactions shown above, which statement is NOT Assume equal starting concentration of the substrates for both reactions. a. reaction 2 will produce product faster than reaction 1 b. at equilibrium, reaction 1 will produce the same amount of product as reaction 2 c. reaction 1 has a lower activation energy than reaction 2 d. both reactions are exergonic 13. Which statement about noncompetitive inhibitors is NOT a. they change the enzyme's shape b. the amount of inhibition changes as enzyme concentration changes c. the amount of inhibition changes as substrate concentration changes d. they often interact with the enzyme at a site away from the active site 14. Each of the following events is involved in the production and secretion of insulin (a protein) by the pancreas. I. packaging at the Golgi II. transcription within the nucleus III. exocytosis IV. translation on the rough ER V. transport within the ER Which is the correct order of the events? a. II IV V I III b. III I IV V II c. I III IV II V d. IV II V I III 15. What can C 4 do that C 3 plants can't? a. light reactions in the dark b. capture CO 2 efficiently at high temperatures c. dark reactions in the light d. produce O 2 when water is scarce e. close their stomata 16. Which statement about the dark reactions of photosynthesis is NOT a. RuBisCo is involved in the capture of CO 2 b. in some C 4 plants CO 2 is fixed as oxaloacetate c. CO 2 is reduced by oxygen d. for each turn of the Calvin cycle one CO 2 molecule is captured 17. Which statement about the respiration is NOT a. a proton gradient is important in ATP production b. one of the products of respiration is water c. during respiration carbon and oxygen are combined to produce CO 2 d. for every NADH generated in the Krebs cycle 2.5 ATP can be produced by the ETC 18. Which statement about the light reactions of photosynthesis is NOT a. one of the products of the light reactions is ATP b. the final acceptor of electrons in the light reactions is NADP c. glucose is the final product of the light reactions d. proton gradients are important in ATP production e. water is split by photosystem II 19. The diagram above shows a cell that is probably in a. metaphase II of meiosis b. anaphase II of meiosis c. anaphase of mitosis d. anaphase I of meiosis

3 First Letter Third Letter 20. Which statement about meiosis is NOT a. Independent assortment of homologous chromosomes occurs during metaphase I b. meiosis produces haploid cells from diploid cells c. sister chromatids separate during anaphase I d. between meiosis I and meiosis II, DNA is not replicated Codon Chart Second Letter U C A G UUU Phe UCU-Ser UAU-Tyr UGU-Cys U U UUC- Phe UCC-Ser UAC-Tyr UGC-Cys C UUA-Leu UCA-Ser UAA-Stop UGA-Stop A UUG-Leu UCG-Ser UAG-Stop UGG-Trp G CUU-Leu CCU-Pro CAU-His CGU-Arg U C CUC-Leu CCC-Pro CAC-His CGC-Arg C CUA-Leu CCA-Pro CAA-Gln CGA-Arg A CUG-Leu CCG-Pro CAG-Gln CGG-Arg G AUU-Ile ACU-Thr AAU-Asn AGU-Ser U A AUC-Ile ACC-Thr AAC-Asn AGC-Ser C AUA-Ile ACA-Thr AAA-Lys AGA-Arg A AUG-Met ACG-Thr AAG-Lys AGG-Arg G GUU-Val GCU-Ala GAU-Asp GGU-Gly U G GUC-Val GCC-Ala GAC-Asp GGC-Gly C GUA-Val GCA-Ala GAA-Glu GGA-Gly A GUG-Val GCG-Ala GAG-Glu GGG-Gly G 21. If the anticodon of a trna is GUC, it should be carrying the amino acid a. Ser b. Val c. Tyr d. Gln e. Leu 22. Given the following cross: AaBBCc x Aabbcc what proportion of the offspring should have the dominant phenotype for all three genes (A-B-C-)? a. 3/8 b. 3/32 c. 1/2 d. 3/ Which statement about the lac operon of E. coli is NOT a. the repressor protein associates with the operator in the presence of lactose b. the catabolite activator protein binds to the promoter in the presence of camp c. transcription can only occur when lactose is present d. transcription can only occur when ATP levels are low 24. Each of the events below is involved in the replication of DNA. I. DNA polymerase III synthesizes DNA II. primase synthesizes RNA III. ligase unites DNA fragments IV. DNA polymerase I removes the primer V. unwinding of DNA double helix Which ordering of the events is a. III II I V V b. V II I IV III c. I II III IV V d. V II IV I III 25. The formation of new species is thought to usually occur when a. a species undergoes rapid mutational change b. natural selection is very strong c. two populations of a species that have been separated come into contact again d. two populations of a species evolve in different geographic areas 26. In humans, low birth-weight babies have high death rates, and very high birth-weight babies have high death rates. The average birth-weight, about 7 pounds, has the lowest mortality. This is appears to be an example of a. sexual selection b. directional selection c. stabilizing selection d. disruptive selection 27. Which is most likely to promote genotype frequency change within a population? a. Fluctuating weather patterns b. Assortative (non-random) mating c. genetic differences between individuals d. large population size 28. Sunflowers can have either a single large flower, or many small flowers. This is controlled by a single gene with two alleles. The single flower allele is dominant. In a population of sunflowers, the frequency of the single flower allele is 0.2. What is the frequency of the other allele? a. 0.2 b c d. 0.8

4 29. Using the information in the previous question, and assuming the population is in Hardy Weinberg equilibrium, what proportion of the population will have single flowers? a. 36% b. 4% c. 64% d. 16% 30. Two species of morning glory grow in the same area and flower at the same time of year. However, hybrids between the two species are never seen because the sperm cells produced by each species are unable to reach the eggs in the ovule of the other species. Thus, the two species are reproductively isolated. This an example of a a. gamete incompatibility b. hybrid sterility c. zygote inviability d. allopatric speciation 31. The male northern cricket frog has a call with a higher pitch than the male of the southern cricket frog. Females of the northern cricket frog are not attracted to the call of the southern cricket frog. This is an example of what kind of reproductive isolation? a. ecological b. postzygotic c. behavioral d. geographic 32. In a large Australian bee species, males fight intensely over access to female mates, even to the point of killing members of their own species. What evolutionary force underlies this behavior? a. Crypsis b. Sexual selection c. Inbreeding d. Disassortative mating 33. What is the general name for this type of virus? a. HIV b. Corona virus c. bacteriophage d. helical 35. Which statement about bacterial viruses is NOT a. temperate phage have a lysogenic cycle b. most have a lytic cycle c. a prophage is created when the genetic code of a virus is inserted into the host cell s genome d. during phage conversion the host cell is lysed 36. Which statement about the influenza virus is NOT a. new human influenza viruses often come from other animals b. new human influenza viruses are often the result of recombination between different viruses c. one flu vaccination protects against all varieties of the influenza virus d. bird flu can also infect humans 37. Which statement about HIV is NOT correct a. HIV targets immune system cells b. HIV was originally found in birds c. HIV enters cells using the same system as smallpox d. only individuals infected with HIV will produce antibodies to HIV e. HIV is a retrovirus 34. Some viruses have an RNA code but can make a DNA copy of their code using an enzyme called a. dibubblymuctase b. reverse transcriptase c. DNA polymerase IV d. Transacetylase

5 Answer key NOTE: The final exam will have 50 questions. About 25 questions will be on material covered prior to Exam 3 (Chapters 1-8, 10-15) and about 25 questions will be on the material covered after Exam 3 (last bit of Chapters 20-22, 26 and 27) 1. B 2. C 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. B 12. A 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. C 17. C 18. C 19. D 20. C 21. D 22. A 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. D 29. A 30. A 31. C 32. B 33. C 34. B 35. D 36. C 37. B