2 A single allele that controls more than one character is said to be. A. linked B. photogenic C. pleiotropic D. Polygenic E.

Transcription

1 Bio101 Sample Questions_Exam 5 1 Flower color in snapdragons is an example of incomplete dominance. If a red-flowered plant is crossed with a white-flowered plant, the F 1 generation has pink flowers. If a pink-flowered plant is crossed with a pink-flowered plant, the progeny plants will be. A. 100% red B. 25% red, 50% pink, and 25% white C. 25% white and 75% red D. 100% pink E. 50% pink and 50% red 2 A single allele that controls more than one character is said to be. A. linked B. photogenic C. pleiotropic D. Polygenic E. autotrophic 3. In people with sickle-cell disease the red blood cells break down, clump, and clog the blood vessels. The blood vessels and the broken cells accumulate in the spleen. Among other things this leads to physical weakness, heart failure, pain, and brain damage. Such a suite of symptoms can be explained by. A. a bacterial infection interacting with the sickle-cell allele B. the disease being the result of the inheritance of two linked genes C. side effects of the drugs used to cure sickle-cell disease D. the pleiotropic effects of the sickle-cell allele E. the polygenic nature of sickle-cell disease 4. A red bull is crossed with a white cow and all of the offspring are roan (rust-color), a shade between red and white. This is an example of genes that are. A. incompletely dominant B. dominant C. really hard to understand D. nonhomologous 5 There is a group of small fish living in a lake with a sandy bottom. Most of the fish are light brown, but about 10% are mottled. These fish are normally prey for large birds that live on the shore. A construction company dumps a load of gravel in the bottom of the lake, giving it a mottled appearance. Which of these statements presents the most accurate prediction? A. There is no way to guess the result. B. The ratios of the differently colored fish will not change. C. The proportion of mottled fish will increase over time. D. In two generations, all the fish will be mottled. E. As the mottled fish are eaten, more will be produced to fill the gap. 6 In evolutionary terms, an organism's Darwinian fitness is measured by its. A. mutation rate B. stability in the face of environmental change C. contribution to the gene pool of the next generation D. health E. genetic variability 7 Which of the following is a true statement about Charles Darwin? A. He was the first to discover that living things can change, or evolve. B. He proposed natural selection as the mechanism of evolution.

2 C. He worked out the principles of population genetics. D. He based his theory on the inheritance of acquired characteristics. E. He was a vicious pirate on a ship called the Regal Beagle. 8 Animals that possess homologous structures probably. A. by chance had similar mutations in the past B. are not related C. are headed for extinction D. evolved from the same ancestor E. have no genetic diversity 9 All known organisms transcribe genetic information to protein molecules via the same genetic code. This finding strongly supports the hypothesis that. A. the genetic code will never be broken B. the earliest macromolecules probably arose when lightning struck an oxygen-free atmosphere C. there's only one possible way to encode information in a macromolecule D. none of the above E. all organisms are descended from a single common ancestor 10 Evidence from molecular biology supports the theory of evolution by showing that. A. homologous proteins have arisen separately in many different animal groups B. closely related organisms have similar stages of development C. closely related animal species have similar geographic distributions D. closely related organisms have more similar DNA and proteins E. none of the above 11 "Natural selection" and "evolution" are two terms that are sometimes confused. What is the relation between natural selection and evolution? A. When natural selection is occurring, evolution is not, and vice versa. B. They are the same thing. C. Any phenomenon that causes evolution cannot cause natural selection. D. Natural selection is one of mechanisms of evolution. E. None of the above. 12 In natural selection, determines which phenotypes are successful. A. human intervention B. sample size C. a mystical genie D. the organism itself E. the environment 13 When they were first sold, aerosol insecticides were highly effective in killing flies and mosquitoes. Today, some 30 years later, a much smaller proportion of these insects die when sprayed. The reason fewer insects are being killed is that. A. mosquitoes are deliberately adapting themselves to this man-made change in the environment B. many mosquitoes today are descendants of mosquitoes with insecticide-resistant characteristics C. the original spraying has caused a permanent mutation, giving the insects genetic resistance to the spray D. mosquitoes that survive spraying, later develop an immunity to the insecticide E. none of the above 14 A population is. A. the number of humans per unit area B. the number of organisms in a particular habitat C. organisms of different species that live together

3 D. all living organisms on Earth E. a group of individuals of the same species occupying a given area 15 The oldest fossils have been dated to be approximately years old. A. 3.5 million B. 38,000 C. 3.5 D. 3.5 or 4 billion E. 3.5 trillion 16 What evidence most strongly suggests that an impact by an asteroid or meteorite may have caused the extinction of the dinosaurs? A. A 65-million-year-old crater has been found in the Caribbean Sea. B. Fossils show that dinosaurs suffered from cold and starvation. C. The dinosaurs disappeared rather slowly, over many thousands of years. D. Fossils indicate that most dinosaurs were looking up when they died. E. There have been several near misses in recent years 17 The endosymbiotic theory states that ; one piece of evidence supporting this theory is the fact that. A. the first hereditary material was RNA... mitochondria and chloroplasts have heredity based on RNA B. mitochondria and chloroplasts originated as ingested prokaryotes... mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA C. the genomes of complex animals came in part from the genomes of invading pathogens... the human genome contains the complete genomes of 120 viruses and 10 bacteria D. none of the above E. over time, parasites evolve to resemble their hosts... the DNA of human parasites contains segments of human DNA F. 18 The most abundant group of organisms on Earth are the. A. eukaryotes B. prokaryotes C. algae D. protists E. protozoans 19 Which one of the following statements is FALSE? A. Prokaryotes do not have mitochondria. B. Prokaryotes do not have a true nucleus. C. Archaea are prokaryotes. D. Mitochondria are incapable of dividing. 20. Protists are a diverse group of organisms that includes. A. plants B. fungi C. animals D. algae and protozoa 21 Which of the following groups of algae are most closely related to higher plants? A. multicellular green algae B. diatoms C. dinoflagellates D. brown algae 22 Most bryophytes, such as mosses, differ from all other plants in that they.

4 A. produce pollen B. lack vascular tissue C. have flagellated sperm D. have cones but no seeds E. do not produce flowers 23 Angiosperms are different from all other plants because only they have. A. vascular tissue B. flowers C. seeds D. flagellated sperm 24 Which of the following are nonvascular but have adaptations that green algae lack (such as a cuticle and stomata)? A. brown algae B. mosses C. angiosperms D. gymnosperms E. ferns 25 Bryophytes are small because. A. they live in the desert B. they evolved in cold climates C. they lack vascular tissue D. they reproduce by insects carrying their pollen E. they live in areas of limited nutrients 26 Ferns and mosses are mostly limited to moist environments because. A. their pollen is carried by water B. they have swimming sperm C. their seeds do not store much water D. they lack cuticles and stomata E. they lack vascular tissue 27 An explorer found a plant that had roots, stems, and leaves. It had no flowers but produced seeds. This plant sounds like a(n). A. gymnosperm B. moss C. bryophyte D. fern E. angiosperm 28 Male floral parts include. A. ovaries only B. stamens C. stigmas D. stigma, style, and ovary E. petals and sepals 29 The defining reproductive adaptation of angiosperms is the. A. gymnosperm B. germinated pollen grain C. sporophyte D. gametophyte E. flower

5 30 Unlike most angiosperms, grasses are pollinated by wind. As a consequence, some unnecessary parts of grass flowers have almost disappeared. Which of the following parts would you expect to be most reduced in a grass flower? (think about which parts are not directly involved in reproduction!) A. anthers B. petals C. ovaries D. carpels E. stamens 31 After fertilization, the develops into a seed and the develops into a fruit. A. egg... ovule B. ovary... ovule C. egg... ovary D. pollen grain... ovule E. ovule... ovary 32 A fruit is a ripened. A. ovary B. vegetable C. seed D. anther E. pollen grain 33 Which one of the following best describes the function of fruits? A. to distract herbivores from eating the leaves B. to compete with other plants for predators C. to store food for the plant to use over the winter D. to reward pollinators E. to protect and disperse the seeds 34 Human survival literally depends on the produce from. A. angiosperms B. mosses C. pines D. charophytes E. gymnosperms 35 Fungi obtain nutrients through. A. magic B. swallowing insects that land on them C. photosynthesis D. absorption E. none of the above 36 The development that freed vertebrates from water for reproduction and allowed them to radiate into diverse terrestrial environments was the. A. Large brains B. scales C. placenta D. amniotic egg E. opposable thumbs 37 The kangaroo is an example of a(n) mammal. A. placental B. egg-laying

6 C. monotreme D. marsupial E. hairless and mean answers 1. b 2. c 3. d 4. a 5. c 6. c 7. b 8. d 9. e 10. d 11. d 12. e 13. b 14. e 15. d 16. a 17. b 18. b 19. d 20. d 21. a 22. b 23. b 24. b 25. c 26. b 27. a 28. b 29. e 30. b 31. e 32. a 33. d 34. a 35. d 36. d 37. a

7