2. The type of seismic waves that arrive at the surface first and move by compressing and expanding the ground like an accordion are called

Transcription

1 Earth Science! Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question 1 The point beneath Earth s surface where rock breaks under stress and triggers an earthquake is called the a syncline b footwall c epicenter d focus 2 The type of seismic waves that arrive at the surface first and move by compressing and expanding the ground like an accordion are called

2 a b c d S waves P waves Surface waves Mercalli waves 3 a b c d S waves are also known as primary waves secondary waves surface waves focus waves

3 4 Compared to P waves and S waves, surface waves move a faster b slower c at the same rate d farther from the epicenter 5 a b c What does a seismograph record? the Mercalli scale rating for an earthquake the speed of seismic waves the ground movements caused by seismic waves

4 d the location of the epicenter 6 If the Coast Guard warns of a giant wave of water approaching the shore as a result of a major earthquake, they are warning of a an aftershock b liquefaction c a tsunami d landslides

5 7 Geologists know that wherever plate movement stores energy in the rock along faults, a earthquakes are not likely b earthquakes are likely c an earthquake is occurring d an earthquake could never occur 8 A force that acts on rock to change its shape or volume is called a an aftershock b friction c liquefaction

6 d stress 9 In what direction do seismic waves carry the energy of an earthquake? a away from the focus b toward the focus c from the surface to the interior d through the mantle only Ms CENTANNI, START FROM HERE!

7 10 Magma that cools very slowly deep beneath the surface forms minerals with what type of crystals? a small b large c very hard d cubic 11 What is the hardest known mineral? a talc b quartz c diamond

8 d gold 12 Minerals can form deep inside Earth s crust by a cleavage and fracture b friction along faults c crystallization of melted materials d evaporation of ancient seas 13 What is the correct order (starting from the surface) of Earth s layers? a crust, outer core, inner core, mantle

9 b c d mantle, outer core, inner core, crust crust, mantle, outer core, inner core outer core, inner core, crust, mantle 14 Earth s inner core is a a dense ball of solid metal b a layer of molten metal c a layer of hot rock d a layer of rock that forms Earth s outer skin

10 15 According to Wegener s hypothesis of continental drift, a Earth s surface is made up of seven major landmasses b the continents do not move c Earth is slowly cooling and shrinking d the continents were once joined together in a single landmass 16 The process by which the ocean floor sinks beneath a deep-ocean trench and back into the mantle is known as a convection b continental drift c subduction

11 d conduction 17 Most geologists think that the movement of Earth s plates is caused by a conduction b earthquakes c convection currents in the mantle d Earth s magnetic field 18 The geological theory that states that pieces of Earth s lithosphere are in constant, slow motion is the theory of

12 a b c d subduction plate tectonics deep-ocean trenches sea-floor spreading 19 A place where two plates slip past each other, moving in opposite directions, is known as a a transform boundary b divergent boundary c convergent boundary d rift valley

13 20 Earth s magnetic field results from movements in the a mantle b outer core c inner core d crust 21 A collision between two pieces of continental crust at a converging boundary produces a a mid-ocean ridge

14 b c d deep-ocean trench rift valley mountain range 22 The place where two plates come together is known as a a transform boundary b divergent boundary c convergent boundary d rift valley

15 23 Rock that forms from the cooling of magma below the surface or lava at the surface is called a sedimentary rock b metamorphic rock c igneous rock d coarse-grained rock 24 Where does most metamorphic rock form? a at the surface b just below the surface c in ocean waters d deep underground 25 Igneous rock that formed from lava that erupted onto Earth s surface is called a extrusive rock b intrusive rock c clastic rock d sedimentary rock 26 Heat and pressure deep beneath Earth s surface can change any rock into a chemical rock b gemstones c metamorphic rock d sedimentary rock

16 27 A series of processes on Earth s surface and in the crust and mantle that slowly changes rocks from one kind to another is called a erosion b crystallization c the rock cycle d evaporation 28 Generally, a rock is made up of a large crystals b a mixture of minerals and other materials c small crystals d a compound of several elements 29 The formation of the Hawaiian Islands is one example of a volcanoes forming over a hot spot b volcanoes forming along plate boundaries c the Ring of Fire d continental drift 30 Which type of rock would you expect to form as the result of an explosive eruption? a pahoehoe b granite c pumice d aa 31 All of the following are examples of physical properties EXCEPT a melting point b hardness c ability to burn d density 32 Before lava reaches the surface, the molten material is called a rock b magma c volcanic ash d liquid fire 33 How do most fossils form? a Living things die and their remains are buried by sediments b The hard parts of an organism dry out in the air c The soft parts of an organism change to stone

17 d Freezing preserves the remains of an organism 34 The geologic time scale is a record of a the thickness of sedimentary rock layers b the rate of fossil formation c the life forms and geologic events in Earth s history d the time since the evolution of dinosaurs 35 The Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic are divisions in the geologic time scale called a centuries b periods c layers d eras 36 Precambrian Time, which includes most of Earth s history, began with a an ice age b Earth forming from a mass of dust and gas c an asteroid impact d the formation of thick deposits of sediment 37 How did Earth change about 25 billion years ago when many organisms began using photosynthesis to make food? a The amount of oxygen in the atmosphere increased b Mass extinctions occurred c The oceans became larger d Rainfall increased 38 As the energy of a wave moves through the water, what happens to the water particles themselves? a They are carried away b They sink to the bottom c They move up and down, but do not move forward d They slowly move backward 39 A topographic map differs from a road map in that the topographic map shows a directions and distance b elevation, relief, and slope c streams and lakes d highways and expressways 40 Soil formation begins with the weathering of

18 a litter b bedrock c the A horizon d humus 41 Decomposers are the soil organisms that a store moisture in the soil b break down and digest the remains of dead organisms c make spaces in the soil for air and water d burrow deep below the topsoil 42 A marble statue is left exposed to the weather Within a few years, the details on the statue have begun to weather away This weathering probably is caused by a oxygen in the air b carbonic acid in rainwater c lichens d abrasion

19 43 Water is the only substance on Earth that a commonly exists in all of its different states b freezes at very low temperatures c boils at very high temperatures d exists in the liquid state 44 When water evaporates, it becomes a a solid b liquid c gas d solvent

20 45 The process by which a gas changes into a liquid is called a evaporation b condensation c melting d freezing 46 Plants use water to a release as a waste product b keep predators away

21 c d make their own food attract pollinators 47 Approximately what percentage of Earth s water is fresh water? a 97 percent b 71 percent c 30 percent d 3 percent 48 Materials that allow water to pass through them easily are

22 a b c d permeable impermeable saturated Unsaturated 49 Summers are caused by a a combination of longer days and more direct rays from the sun b less direct rays from the sun c longer days and longer nights d Earth in its orbit moving closer to the sun

23 50 The seasons are caused by a Earth s varying distance from the sun b Earth s changing rate of rotation c the tilt of Earth s axis as Earth revolves around the sun d shifting climates on Earth s surface 51 Increased carbon dioxide may cause global warming by a allowing more sunlight into the atmosphere b reflecting more sunlight from clouds c reducing the amount of oxygen in the air

24 d trapping more heat in the atmosphere 52 Earth s ozone layer a has been thickening over the past several years b filters harmful ultraviolet radiation from the sun c exists only over Antarctica d traps carbon dioxide in the stratosphere 53 Scientists predict that banning the use of chlorofluorocarbons will a have no effect on the ozone layer b gradually restore the ozone layer

25 c d increase ultraviolet light reaching Earth increase the rate of ozone depletion 54 Regions that receive less than 25 centimeters of rain annually are called a tundras b savannas c deserts d steppes 55 Earth s rotation takes about

26 a b c d 365 days 6 months 24 hours 1 month 56 Day and night are caused by a the tilt of Earth s axis b Earth s revolution around the sun c eclipses d Earth s rotation on its axis

27 57 One complete revolution of Earth around the sun takes about a one rotation b one season c one year d one eclipse 58 Earth has seasons because a it rotates on its axis b the distance between Earth and the sun changes c its axis is tilted as it moves around the sun

28 d the temperature of the sun changes 59 When the north end of Earth s axis is tilted toward the sun, North America will experience a more indirect rays and shorter days b more indirect rays and longer days c more direct rays and shorter days d more direct rays and longer days 60 The phase of the moon you see depends on a where you are on Earth s surface

29 b c d how much of the sunlit side of the moon faces Earth how much of the moon s surface is lit by the sun whether or not an eclipse is occurring 61 For a solar eclipse to occur, a the sun must be directly between Earth and the moon b the moon must be directly between Earth and the sun c the moon must be directly behind Earth d Earth must be directly between the sun and the moon

30 62 During what phase of the moon can a lunar eclipse occur? a new moon b first quarter c waxing gibbous d full moon 63 When are tides highest? a during the moon s first quarter phase b when the sun, Earth, and the moon are nearly in a line c during the moon s third quarter phase d when the moon is at a right angle

31 to the sun 64 Scientists think the moon was formed when a a large object struck Earth, and ejected material from the collision combined b gravitational forces attracted a moon formed elsewhere in space c meteoroids collected and solidified d within the pull of Earth s gravity gases from Earth escaped from the atmosphere and condensed in space 65 Because the moon rotates once for each revolution around Earth, a you see some phases more than

32 others b a different side of the moon faces Earth each day c you never see the far side of the moon from Earth d the far side of the moon is visible only during the full moon phase 66 The two factors that combine to keep Earth and the moon in their orbits are a gravity and orbital speed b orbital speed and mass c mass and inertia d gravity and inertia

33 67 The tendency of a moving object to continue moving in a straight line or a stationary object to remain in place is called a orbital speed b mass c inertia d gravity 68 A range of colors formed when white light passes through a prism is called a a lens b photograph

34 c d spectrum ray 69 Characteristics used to classify stars include a distance, size, and color b size, distance, and brightness c color, brightness, and distance d size, brightness, and temperature 70 What color are the coolest stars?

35 a b c d blue-white yellow red orange 71 The Milky Way galaxy is an example of a(n) a spiral galaxy b globular cluster c elliptical galaxy d irregular galaxy

36 72 The solar system formed from a an expanding galaxy b a giant cloud of gas and dust c an enormous explosion d a black hole 73 The horizontal distance between wave crests is the a frequency b wavelength c trough

37 d wave height 74 The lowest point of a wave is the a crest b wavelength c trough d frequency 75 Tides are caused by a strong winds that blow over ocean waters b the interaction of Earth, the moon,

38 and the sun c the shifting of the plates on the ocean floor d variations in the salinity of ocean water 76 A tide with the LEAST difference between low and high tide is called a a spring tide b neap tide c rip tide d monthly tide

39 77 Which of the following areas in the ocean is likely to have the lowest salinity? a a warm, tropical sea b the cold Arctic Ocean c a bay at the mouth of a big river d deep parts of the Pacific Ocean 78 In the Northern Hemisphere, currents curve to the right because of the a longshore drift b density c Coriolis effect

40 d moon s gravity

41 Earth Science! Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1 ANS: D DIF: L1 REF: p F-51 OBJ: F221 STO: 51A2, 58C1 2 ANS: B DIF: L2 REF: p F-53 OBJ: F221 STO: 57B2 3 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p F-53 OBJ: F221 STO: 57B2 4 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p F-53 OBJ: F221 STO: 57B2 5 ANS: C DIF: L2 REF: p F-54 OBJ: F231 STO: 58D2 6 ANS: C DIF: L3 REF: p F-71 OBJ: F242 STO: 58C1 7 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p F-69 OBJ: F241 STO: 52A2, 58C1, 58D2 8 ANS: D DIF: L1 REF: p F-44 OBJ: F211 STO: 57A2, 51B3 9 ANS: A DIF: L1 REF: p F-52 OBJ: F221 STO: 57B2 10 ANS: B DIF: L2 REF: p F-125 OBJ: F421 STO: 58A1, 56B1, 51B3 11 ANS: C DIF: L2 REF: p F-119 OBJ: F412 STO: 58A1, 53D1a 12 ANS: C DIF: L3 REF: p F-125 OBJ: F421 STO: 58A1, 56B1, 51B3 13 ANS: C DIF: L2 REF: p F-10 OBJ: F112 STO: 58A1 14 ANS: A DIF: L1 REF: p F-12 OBJ: F112 STO: 53B1, 58A1 15 ANS: D DIF: L1 REF: p F-19 OBJ: F131 STO: 58C, 58C2, 52A3 16 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p F-28 OBJ: F143

42 STO: 58C1 17 ANS: C DIF: L2 REF: p F-33 OBJ: F151 STO: 58C1, 51B1 18 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p F-33 OBJ: F151 STO: 58C1, 51B1 19 ANS: A DIF: L1 REF: p F-35 OBJ: F152 STO: 58C1, 53B1 20 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p F-13 OBJ: F ANS: D DIF: L3 REF: p F-35 OBJ: F152 STO: 58C1, 53B1 22 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p F-35 OBJ: F152 STO: 58C1, 53B1 23 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p F-147 OBJ: F512 STO: 58C2, 58C1 24 ANS: D DIF: L1 REF: p F-147 OBJ: F512 STO: 58C2, 58C1 25 ANS: A DIF: L1 REF: p F-148 OBJ: F521 STO: 58A1, 58C1, 51B1 26 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p F-160 OBJ: F551 STO: 58C1 27 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p F-164 OBJ: F561 STO: 58C1, 58A1 28 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p F-145 OBJ: F511 STO: 58A1 29 ANS: A DIF: L2 REF: p F-85 OBJ: F312 STO: 58C1, 51B3, 51A2 30 ANS: C DIF: L2 REF: p F-94, p F-95 OBJ: F332 STO: 51B3, 56A2, 58C1 31 ANS: C DIF: L2 REF: p F-88 OBJ: F321 STO: 56B1, 56A2 32 ANS: B DIF: L2 REF: p F-82 OBJ: F311 STO: 58C1, 51B1 33 ANS: A DIF: L1 REF: p G-110 OBJ: G411 STO: 58A1, 58C2 34 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p G-127 OBJ: G441 STO: 52B1, 58C2

43 35 ANS: D DIF: L2 REF: p G-129 OBJ: G442 STO: 52B1 36 ANS: B DIF: L2 REF: p G-130, p G-131 OBJ: G451 STO: 51B3, 59, 52A1a, 52A1b 37 ANS: A DIF: L2 REF: p G-133 OBJ: G453 STO: 58C2, ANS: C DIF: L2 REF: p G-96 OBJ: G351 STO: 58C1 39 ANS: B DIF: L2 REF: p G-27 OBJ: G141 STO: 58D 40 ANS: B DIF: L3 REF: p G-50 OBJ: G221 STO: 58A1, 58C1 41 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p G-53 OBJ: G223 STO: 58A1 42 ANS: B DIF: L3 REF: p G-43 OBJ: G212 STO: 58C1 43 ANS: A DIF: L2 REF: p H-10 OBJ: H113 STO: 56A2, 56A3 44 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p H-10 OBJ: H113 STO: 56A2, 56A3 45 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p H-11 OBJ: H113 STO: 56A3 46 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p H-13 OBJ: H121 STO: 58B, 55A1 47 ANS: D DIF: L1 REF: p H-14 OBJ: H122 STO: 58B 48 ANS: A DIF: L3 REF: p H-35 OBJ: H151 STO: 58B 49 ANS: A DIF: L2 REF: p I-114 OBJ: I412 STO: 59A3 50 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p I-114 OBJ: I412 STO: 59A3 51 ANS: D DIF: L3 REF: p I-137 OBJ: I442 STO: 52A2 52 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p I-140 OBJ: I443 STO: 510B1, 52A1c, 52B2

44 53 ANS: B DIF: L3 REF: p I-140, p I-141 OBJ: I443 STO: 510B1, 52A1c, 52B2, 58B 54 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p I-122 OBJ: I422 STO: 58B, 53D1b, 55B 55 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p ES-661 OBJ: ES1911 STO: 59A1, 59A3 56 ANS: D DIF: L1 REF: p ES-661 OBJ: ES1911 STO: 59A1, 59A3 57 ANS: C DIF: L2 REF: p ES-661 OBJ: ES1911 STO: 59A1, 59A3 58 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p ES-662 OBJ: ES1912 STO: 59A3, 51B3, 51B1 59 ANS: D DIF: L3 REF: p ES-664 OBJ: ES1912 STO: 59A3 60 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p ES-673 OBJ: ES1931 STO: 59A1 61 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p ES-676 OBJ: ES1932 STO: 59A1 62 ANS: D DIF: L1 REF: p ES-677 OBJ: ES1932 STO: 59A1 63 ANS: B DIF: L3 REF: p ES-675 OBJ: ES1933 STO: 59A2 64 ANS: A DIF: L2 REF: p ES-683 OBJ: ES1943 STO: 52A1a, 59A1, 51A1 65 ANS: C DIF: L2 REF: p ES-671 OBJ: ES1931 STO: 59A1, 59A2, 51B3 66 ANS: D DIF: L2 REF: p ES-669 OBJ: ES1922 STO: 57A2, 59A3 67 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p ES-668 OBJ: ES1922 STO: 57A2, 53D1a 68 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p ES-745 OBJ: ES2111 STO: 52B2 69 ANS: D DIF: L2 REF: p ES-751 OBJ: ES2121 STO: 59C1 70 ANS: C DIF: L1 REF: p ES-751 OBJ: ES2121 STO: 59C1

45 71 ANS: A DIF: L1 REF: p ES-771 OBJ: ES2142 STO: 59D1 72 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p ES-777 OBJ: ES2152 STO: 59B, 51A1 73 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p ES-436 OBJ: ES1311 STO: 57B2 74 ANS: C DIF: L2 REF: p ES-436 OBJ: ES1311 STO: 57B2 75 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p ES-443 OBJ: ES1321 STO: 59A2 76 ANS: B DIF: L1 REF: p ES-444 OBJ: ES1322 STO: 59A2 77 ANS: C DIF: L2 REF: p ES-450 OBJ: ES1331 STO: 53B1, 58B, 56A2 78 ANS: C DIF: L2 REF: p ES-457 OBJ: ES1341 STO: 58B