Z-Biology Midterm Review Bank-2 (15-16)

Transcription

1 Z-Biology Midterm Review Bank-2 (15-16) Multiple Choice Identify the letter of the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The work of Schleiden and Schwann can be summarized by saying that a. all plants are made of cells. b. all animals are made of cells. c. plants and animals have specialized cells. d. all plants and animals are made of cells. 2. Cells fall into two broad categories, depending on whether they a. have a cell wall. c. have a nucleus. b. contain genetic material. d. contain chloroplasts. 3. Eukaryotes usually contain a. a nucleus. c. genetic material. b. specialized organelles. d. all of the above 4. Which organelle makes proteins using coded instructions that come from the nucleus? a. Golgi apparatus c. vacuole b. mitochondrion d. ribosome 5. Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane? a. breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins from foods b. stores water, salt, proteins, and carbohydrates c. keeps the cell wall in place d. regulates which materials enter and leave the cell 6. Diffusion occurs because a. molecules constantly move and collide with one another. b. the concentration of a solution is never the same throughout a solution. c. the concentration of a solution is always the same throughout a solution. d. molecules never move or collide with one another. 7. An animal cell that is surrounded by fresh water will burst because the osmotic pressure causes a. water to move into the cell. c. solutes to move into the cell. b. water to move out of the cell. d. solutes to move out of the cell. 8. The cells of multicellular organisms are a. smaller than those of unicellular organisms. b. simpler than those of unicellular organisms. c. specialized to perform particular functions. d. not dependent on one another. 9. Which of the following can be found making up the stomach? a. epithelial tissue c. muscle cells b. nerve tissue d. All of these 10. An organ system is a group of organs that a. are made up of similar cells. b. are made up of similar tissues. c. work together to perform a specific function. d. work together to perform all the functions in a multicellular organism. 11. The thin, flexible barrier around a cell is called the a. plasma membrane. c. cell envelope. b. cell wall. d. cytoplasm.

2 12. Which of the following does not contain a nucleus? a. protists c. eukaryotes b. bacteria d. fungi 13. The main function of the cell wall is to a. support and protect the cell. c. direct the activities of the cell. b. store DNA. d. help the cell move. 14. Diffusion is the movement of particles from a. an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration. b. an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. c. an area of equilibrium to an area of high concentration. d. all of the above 15. The diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called a. osmotic pressure. c. facilitated diffusion. b. osmosis. d. active transport. 16. Which term refers to cells having different tasks in an organism? a. multicellular c. levels of organization b. cell specialization d. unicellular 17. A group of similar cells that perform a particular function is called a(an) a. organ. c. tissue. b. organ system. d. division of labor. 18. Prokaryotes are single-celled organisms that lack a a. cell wall. c. definite shape. b. cell membrane. d. nucleus. 19. The structure labeled C in Figure 19-1 is Figure 19-1 a. DNA. c. the nucleus. b. an organelle. d. a high-energy sugar. 20. The structure labeled A in Figure 19-1 is a. plasma membrane c. cell wall b. capsule d. cytoplasm 21. The structure labeled D in Figure 19-1 is a and functions in. a. cilium, conjugation c. flagellum, locomotion b. pillus, sticking to substrate d. capsule, protection from host immune system 22. Which of the following statements is NOT true about archaebacteria?

3 a. They are thought to be ancestors of eukaryotes. b. Many live in harsh environments. c. They lack peptidoglycan in their cell wall. d. They make up the largest kingdom of prokaryotes. 23. Spherical prokaryotes are called a. spirilla. c. cocci. b. flagella. d. bacilli. 24. When treated with Gram stain, Gram-positive bacteria appear a. violet. c. yellow. b. pink. d. orange. 25. Unlike photoautotrophs, chemoautotrophs obtain energy a. directly from the sun. b. directly from chemical reactions. c. indirectly from carbon molecules. d. indirectly from other organisms. 26. Which of the following describes a role of bacteria in the environment? a. carrying out photosynthesis c. fixing nitrogen b. recycling nutrients d. all of the above 27. Humans use bacteria in all of the following ways EXCEPT to a. clean up small oil spills. b. make butter and milk. c. mine minerals from the ground. d. synthesize drugs. 28. Viruses that contain RNA and reverse transcriptase are called a. prophages. c. retroviruses. b. bacteriophages. d. capsids. 29. What can a vaccine do when it is injected into the body? a. prompt the body to produce immunity to a disease b. produce toxins that disrupt bacterial equilibrium c. use bacterial cells for food d. destroy new pathogens as they arise in the body 30. Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a virus? a. tetanus c. AIDS b. influenza d. chickenpox 31. Which of the following is NOT true about prions? a. They are particles composed only of protein. b. They are single-stranded RNA molecules with no capsid. c. They can cause disease in humans. d. They contain no RNA or DNA. 32. Which of the following are used to identify prokaryotes? a. cell shape c. the way prokaryotes obtain energy b. the way prokaryotes move d. all of the above 33. Two groups of prokaryotes that make their own food from inorganic molecules are a. heterotrophs and autotrophs. b. obligate aerobes and obligate anaerobes. c. photoautotrophs and chemoautotrophs. d. chemoheterotrophs and photoheterotrophs. 34. Binary fission occurs when a bacterium

4 a. exchanges genetic information with another cell. b. forms an endospore to survive harsh conditions. c. forms a hollow bridge to another bacterial cell. d. replicates its DNA and divides in half. 35. Bacteria that break down the nutrients in dead matter into simpler substances that are taken up by plant roots are called a. endospores. c. photoautotrophs. b. flagella. d. decomposers. 36. A typical virus is composed of a a. cell wall made of peptidoglycan. b. core of DNA or RNA surrounded by a protein coat. c. bacteriophage inside a lytic infection. d. core of protein surrounded by a coat of DNA. 37. What are viruses that infect bacteria called? a. archaebacteria c. nitrogen fixers b. facultative anaerobes d. bacteriophages 38. Antibiotics are compounds that can a. disrupt a virus s normal equilibrium. b. prompt the body to produce immunity. c. block the growth and reproduction of bacteria. d. control a viral infection. 39. A prion is a viruslike particle that contains only a. DNA. c. RNA. b. endospores. d. protein. 40. During his voyage on the Beagle, Charles Darwin made many observations a. in England. c. on the Galápagos Islands. b. in North America. d. in Asia. 41. On the Galápagos Islands, Charles Darwin observed a. completely unrelated species on each of the islands. b. species exactly like those found in South America. c. somewhat similar species, with traits that suited their particular environments. d. species completely unrelated to those found in South America. 42. The species of finches that Charles Darwin found on the Galápagos Islands displayed different structural adaptations. One of the adaptations that Darwin noted was the a. similarities of the birds embryos. c. length of the birds necks. b. birds different-shaped beaks. d. number of eggs in each bird s nest. 43. Based on the adaptations Charles Darwin observed in finches and tortoises in the Galápagos, he wondered a. if species living on different islands had once been members of the same species. b. if finches and tortoises had originated from the same ancestral species. c. if all birds on the different islands were finches. d. why all tortoises on the different islands were identical. 44. Darwin began to formulate his concept of evolution by natural selection after a. experimentation with animals. b. observations of many species and their geographical location. c. reading the writings of Wallace. d. agreeing with Lamarck about the driving force behind evolution. 45. James Hutton s and Charles Lyell s work suggests that a. Earth is many millions of years old. b. Earth is several thousand years old.

5 c. all fossils were formed in the last 1000 years. d. all rocks on Earth contain fossils. 46. In the 1800s, Charles Lyell emphasized that a. the human population will outgrow the available food supply. b. all populations evolve through natural selection. c. Earth is a few thousand years old. d. past geological events must be explained in terms of processes observable today. 47. One scientist who attempted to explain how rock layers form and change over time was a. Thomas Malthus. c. Charles Darwin. b. James Hutton. d. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck. 48. James Hutton s and Charles Lyell s work was important to Darwin because these scientists a. explained volcanoes and earthquakes. b. explained all geologic events on Earth. c. suggested that Earth was old enough for evolution to have occurred. d. refuted the work of Lamarck, which was based on misunderstandings. 49. What did Charles Darwin learn from reading the work of James Hutton and Charles Lyell? a. Earth is relatively young. b. Earth is very old. c. All geological change is caused by living organisms. d. The processes that formed old rocks on Earth do not operate today. 50. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck proposed that organisms a. have an innate tendency toward complexity and perfection. b. have an innate tendency to become simpler as time passes. c. inherit all of the adaptations they display. d. belong to species that never change. 51. Which is a major concept included in Lamarck s theory of evolution? a. Change is the result of survival of the fittest. b. Body structure can change according to the actions of the organism. c. Population size decreases the rate of evolution. d. Artificial selection is the basis for evolution. 52. Lamarck s theory of evolution includes the concept that new organs in a species appear as a result of a. continual increases in population size. b. the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures. c. an unchanging local environment. d. the natural variations already present within the population of organisms. 53. In each generation, the wings of experimental fruit flies were clipped short for fifty generations. The fifty-first generation emerged with normal-length wings. This observation would tend to disprove the idea that evolution is based on a. inheritance of natural variations. b. inheritance of acquired characteristics. c. natural selection. d. survival of the fittest. 54. The economist Thomas Malthus suggested that a. in the human population, people die faster than babies are born. b. there would soon be insufficient food for the growing human population. c. in the 1700s, England needed more housing. d. the majority of a species offspring die. 55. The idea that only famine, disease, and war could prevent the endless growth of human populations was presented by

6 a. Charles Darwin. c. Thomas Malthus. b. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck. d. Charles Lyell. 56. Darwin realized that the economist Malthus s theory of population control a. applied only to humans. b. could be generalized to any population of organisms. c. could be generalized only when populations lived in crowded conditions. d. explained why the number of deaths exceeded that of births. 57. In 1859, Charles Darwin published his revolutionary scientific ideas in a work titled a. Principles of Geology. b. Essay on the Principle of Population. c. Evolution in Malaysia. d. On the Origin of Species. 58. Darwin was prompted to publish his theory of evolution by a. an essay by Wallace on evolution. b. the publication of Lamarck s theory of evolution. c. the vice governor of the Galápagos Islands. d. the work of Hutton and Lyell. 59. When Charles Darwin returned from the voyage of the Beagle, he a. immediately published his ideas about evolution. b. realized his ideas about evolution were wrong. c. wrote about his ideas but waited many years to publish them. d. copied the evolutionary theory of Wallace. 60. Why might Darwin have hesitated to publish his concept of evolution by natural selection? a. He realized it was not supported by his data. b. He felt it was too similar to Lamarck s to be considered original. c. He was disturbed by his findings, which challenged fundamental scientific beliefs. d. He realized that his idea was contradicted by the work of Hutton and Lyell. 61. Charles Darwin s observation that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics supports the hypothesis that these finches a. have the ability to interbreed. b. acquired traits through use and disuse. c. all eat the same type of food. d. descended from a common ancestor. 62. According to Darwin s theory of natural selection, individuals who survive are the ones best adapted for their environment. Their survival is due to the a. possession of adaptations developed through use. b. possession of inherited adaptations that maximize fitness. c. lack of competition within the species. d. choices made by plant and animal breeders. 63. When farmers select animals or plants to use for breeding, they look for a. species that are perfect and unchanging. b. homologous structures. c. traits that are produced artificially. d. natural variations that are present in a species. 64. When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is a. natural selection. c. artificial variation. b. artificial selection. d. survival of the fittest. 65. When lions prey on a herd of antelopes, some antelopes are killed and some escape. Which part of Darwin s concept of natural selection might be used to describe this situation?

7 a. acquired characteristics c. survival of the fittest b. reproductive isolation d. descent with modification 66. Which statement about the members of a population that live long enough to reproduce is consistent with the theory of natural selection? a. They transmit characteristics acquired by use and disuse to their offspring. b. They tend to produce fewer offspring than others in the population. c. They are the ones that are best adapted to survive in their environment. d. They will perpetuate unfavorable changes in the species. 67. Charles Darwin called the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment a. diversity. c. adaptation. b. fitness. d. evolution. 68. According to Darwin s theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have a. characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse. b. characteristics that plant and animal breeders value. c. the greatest number of offspring. d. variations best suited to the environment. 69. Which of the following phrases best describes the results of natural selection? a. the natural variation found in all populations b. unrelated but similar species living in different locations c. changes in the inherited characteristics of a population d. the struggle for existence undergone by all living things 70. An adaptation is an inherited characteristic that can be a. physical or behavioral. b. physical or geographical. c. acquired during the organism s lifetime. d. the result of artificial selection. Figure In humans, the pelvis and femur, or thigh bone, are involved in walking. In whales, the pelvis and femur shown in Figure 15 1 are a. examples of fossils. c. acquired traits. b. vestigial structures. d. examples of natural variation. 72. Modern sea star larvae resemble some primitive vertebrate larvae. This similarity may suggest that primitive vertebrates a. share a common ancestor with sea stars.

8 b. evolved from sea stars. c. evolved before sea stars. d. belong to the same species as sea stars. 73. Darwin s concept of evolution was NOT influenced by a. the work of Charles Lyell. b. knowledge about the structure of DNA. c. his collection of specimens. d. his trip on the H.M.S. Beagle. 74. People of Charles Darwin s time understood that fossils a. were preserved remains of ancient organisms. b. were available for every organism that ever lived. c. were unrelated to living species. d. were evidence for the evolution of life on Earth. 75. The number and location of bones of many fossil vertebrates are similar to those in living vertebrates. Most biologists would probably explain this fact on the basis of a. the needs of the organisms. c. the struggle for existence. b. a common ancestor. d. the inheritance of acquired traits. 76. Charles Darwin viewed the fossil record as a. evidence that Earth was thousands of years old. b. a detailed record of evolution. c. interesting but unrelated to the evolution of modern species. d. evidence that traits are acquired through use or disuse. 77. The hypothesis that species change over time by natural selection was proposed by a. James Hutton. c. Thomas Malthus. b. Jean-Baptiste Lamarck. d. Charles Darwin. 78. Charles Darwin s theory of evolution explains all of the following EXCEPT a. how species become extinct. b. how inherited traits are passed from parent to offspring. c. how species change over time. d. how evolution takes place in the natural world. 79. Darwin s theory of evolution suggests that a. species change over time. b. extinct species are not related to living species. c. different species can interbreed. d. animals that look alike are the most closely related. 80. Darwin s theory of evolution is based on the idea(s) of a. heritable variation and natural selection. b. use and disuse. c. a tendency toward perfect, unchanging species. d. the transmission of acquired characteristics. 81. The same kinds of cells that grow in similar patterns in different but related organisms produce a. homologous structures such as wings and arms. b. the same kind of embryos. c. natural variations in a population. d. descent with modification. 82. Which statement is in agreement with Darwin s theory of evolution? a. More offspring are produced than can possibly survive. b. The organisms that are the fittest are always largest and strongest. c. The number of offspring is not related to fitness.

9 d. Acquired characteristics that are inherited are the cause of evolution. 83. Which concept is NOT included in the modern theory of evolution? a. descent with modification b. natural selection c. transmission of acquired characteristics d. competition among the members of a population 84. Which phrase best defines evolution by natural selection? a. an adaptation of a species to its environment b. a sudden replacement of one population by another c. changes in a species as it becomes more perfect d. a process of change in species over time 85. Sedimentary rock is formed from a. the soft parts of organisms. b. the hard parts of organisms. c. small particles of sand, silt, and clay. d. wood, shell, and bone. 86. What proportion of all species that ever lived has become extinct? a. less than 1 percent c. more than 99 percent b. approximately one-half d. 100 percent 87. To be useful as an index fossil, a species must have existed for a a. long period over a wide geographic range. b. long period over a small geographic range. c. short period over a wide geographic range. d. short period over a small geographic range. 88. The basic divisions of the geologic time scale from larger to smaller are a. eras and periods. b. periods and eras. c. relative and absolute dates. d. billions of years and millions of years. 89. The Mesozoic Era occurred a. before Precambrian Time. c. after the Paleozoic Era. b. during Precambrian Time. d. after the Cenozoic Era. 90. Which of the following was NOT characteristic of Earth before the oceans formed? a. volcanic activity b. bombardment by comets and asteroids c. an atmosphere of poisonous gases d. an atmosphere containing oxygen gas 91. Two gases that probably existed in Earth s early atmosphere are a. oxygen and hydrogen sulfide. b. water vapor and oxygen. c. oxygen and carbon monoxide. d. hydrogen cyanide and carbon monoxide. 92. What prevents organic molecules from forming on their own and remaining intact today? a. Earth is too hot. b. Atmospheric oxygen is too reactive. c. The necessary building blocks no longer exist. d. There is no energy source available. 93. One necessary condition for the evolution of the first life on Earth was a. the presence of DNA.

10 b. abundant oxygen in the atmosphere. c. the presence of photosynthetic organisms. d. the presence of liquid water. 94. Which of the following functions can RNA perform under certain conditions? a. catalyzing chemical reactions b. processing messenger RNA after transcription c. helping DNA replicate d. all of the above 95. Why did the development of sexual reproduction speed up the process of evolution? a. Sexual reproduction occurs more rapidly than asexual reproduction. b. The offspring of sexual reproduction are identical to their parents. c. Sexual reproduction increases genetic variety. d. Sexual reproduction limits genetic variety. 96. What was the response of the various groups of early organisms that existed when oxygen levels rose in the atmosphere? a. Some life forms became extinct. b. Some life forms survived in only a few airless habitats. c. Some life forms evolved metabolic pathways that used oxygen for respiration. d. all of the above 97. The Cambrian Explosion resulted in the evolution of the first a. dinosaurs and mammals. b. representatives of most animal groups. c. bacteria. d. land animals. 98. The process by which two species, for example, a flower and a pollinating insect, evolve in response to each other is called a. convergent evolution. c. coevolution. b. adaptive radiation. d. punctuated equilibrium. 99. In the past, mass extinctions encouraged the rapid evolution of surviving species a. by changing developmental genes. b. by making new habitats available to them. c. because they killed all organisms that had coevolved. d. because they spared all organisms that had evolved convergently Examples of fossils include preserved a. eggs. c. body parts. b. footprints. d. all of the above 101. Most fossils form in a. rusty water. c. sedimentary rock. b. volcanic rocks. d. the sap of ancient trees The length of time required for half of the radioactive atoms in a sample to decay is its a. half-life. c. radioactive date. b. relative date. d. period To compare the relative ages of fossils, scientists sometimes use an easily recognized species called a(an) a. carbon fossil. c. index fossil. b. radioactive fossil. d. sedimentary fossil Earth s most recent era is the a. Paleozoic. c. Cenozoic. b. Mesozoic. d. Precambrian.

11 Why did oceans not exist on Earth nearly 4 billion years ago? a. No water molecules were present. b. Water remained a gas because Earth was very hot. c. Water existed as ice because Earth was very cold. d. There was no oxygen gas in the atmosphere. Early in Earth s history, while the planet was in a melted state, the most dense elements formed Earth s a. core. c. crust. b. seas. d. atmosphere. In addition to hydrogen, two of the gases used in Miller and Urey s experiment were a. nitrogen and carbon monoxide. b. hydrogen cyanide and oxygen. c. methane and ammonia. d. carbon dioxide and hydrogen sulfide. What do proteinoid microspheres have in common with cells? a. They can store and release energy. c. They contain RNA. b. They contain DNA. d. They are communities of organisms. When oxygen was first released in the early seas, it combined with iron to form a. RNA. c. proteins. b. DNA. d. rust. The first organisms on Earth were most like today s a. bacteria. c. multicellular organisms. b. eukaryotes. d. DNA molecules. A very large mass extinction in which trilobites and amphibians disappeared occurred at the end of the a. Precambrian Era. c. Paleozoic Era. b. Cambrian Period. d. Quaternary Period. During the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods, the dominant land animals were a. amphibians. c. grazing mammals. b. dinosaurs. d. human ancestors. A single species that has evolved into several different forms that live in different ways has undergone a. adaptive radiation. c. punctuated equilibrium. b. coevolution. d. mass extinction. Sharks, dolphins, and penguins all have streamlined bodies and appendages that enable them to move through water. These similarities are the result of a. coevolution. c. asexual reproduction. b. convergent evolution. d. adaptive radiation. The work of Schleiden and Schwann can be summarized by saying that a. all plants are made of cells. b. all animals are made of cells. c. plants and animals have specialized cells. d. all plants and animals are made of cells. Which cell structure contains the cell s genetic material and controls many of the cell s activities? a. organelle c. cell envelope b. nucleus d. cytoplasm Cells fall into two broad categories, depending on whether they a. have a cell wall. c. have a nucleus. b. contain genetic material. d. contain chloroplasts. Eukaryotes usually contain a. a nucleus. c. genetic material.

12 b. specialized organelles. d. all of the above Which of the following is NOT found in the nucleus? a. cytoplasm c. chromatin b. nucleolus d. DNA Which structures carry out cell movement? a. cytoplasm and ribosomes b. nucleolus and nucleus c. microtubules and microfilaments d. chromosomes Which organelle breaks down compounds into small particles that the cell can use? a. Golgi apparatus c. endoplasmic reticulum b. lysosome d. mitochondrion Which organelle makes proteins using coded instructions that come from the nucleus? a. Golgi apparatus c. vacuole b. mitochondrion d. ribosome Which organelle converts the chemical energy stored in food into compounds that are more convenient for the cell to use? a. chloroplast c. endoplasmic reticulum b. Golgi apparatus d. mitochondrion Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane? a. breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins from foods b. stores water, salt, proteins, and carbohydrates c. keeps the cell wall in place d. regulates which materials enter and leave the cell The cells of multicellular organisms are a. smaller than those of unicellular organisms. b. simpler than those of unicellular organisms. c. specialized to perform particular functions. d. not dependent on one another. Multicellular protists are grouped with unicellular protists because multicellular protists a. do not resemble plants. c. do not resemble fungi. b. do not resemble animals. d. are so similar to unicellular protists. According to biologist Lynn Margulis, eukaryotic cells may have evolved from a. a symbiosis of several cells. b. mitochondria that grew very large. c. chloroplasts that grew very large. d. plants, animals, and fungi. Many zooflagellates live in lakes and streams, where they a. penetrate and live within cells of a host. b. absorb food through their cell membranes. c. feed by sweeping food particles into their gullet. d. feed by surrounding their meal and taking it inside themselves. Which of the following diseases does the animallike protist known as Entamoeba cause? a. malaria c. amebic dysentery b. African sleeping sickness d. potato blight As sunlight passes through sea water, the sea water a. absorbs large amounts of red and violet wavelengths. b. reflects large amounts of red and violet wavelengths.

13 c. absorbs large amounts of blue wavelengths. d. none of the above What effect did the evolution of different forms of chlorophyll have in algae? a. a decrease in the range of depths at which algae can live b. an increase in the range of depths at which algae can live c. no effect on the range of depths at which algae can live d. a reduction in the photosynthetic capacity of algae Which of the statements is true about dinoflagellates? a. They contain bright yellow pigments. b. They can be both photosynthetic and heterotrophic. c. Many species are luminescent. d. They possess pillbox-shaped cell walls of silica. The population of small, photosynthetic organisms found near the surface of the ocean are called a. chrysophytes. c. phytoplankton. b. pyrophytes. d. diatoms. What characteristic of green plants is shared by green algae? a. cell wall composition c. multicellularity b. photosynthetic pigments d. all of the above Red algae lack flagella and a. nuclei. c. accessory pigments. b. centrioles. d. chlorophyll. In the life cycle of the green alga Ulva, the phase that produces male and female gametes is known as a a. sporophyte. c. spore. b. gametophyte. d. zoospore. Some products derived from algae include a. drugs for stomach ulcers and high blood pressure. b. thickeners for food. c. chemicals in plastics, waxes, paints, and lubricants. d. all of the above Funguslike protists get nutrients by a. photosynthesis. b. living as an animal parasite. c. absorbing them from dead or decaying matter. d. none of the above In oomycetes, sexual reproduction takes place in the a. migrating colony. c. antheridium and oogonium. b. sporangium. d. zoosporangium. The work of funguslike protists and other decomposers is important in improving the quality of a. salt water. c. topsoil. b. fresh water. d. potato crops. Completion Complete each sentence or statement The organism labeled A in Figure 19-2 is an example of a(an). a. cocci b. bacilli c. spirilli d. viroid e. prophage

14 Figure The knoblike root nodules of soybean plants are the sites of. a. conjugation b. nitrogen fixation c. vaccination d. glycoproteins e. legumes Figure In Figure 19-3, the structure labeled D is a(an). a. capsid part b. protein c. tail fiber d. receptor binder e. all of these 144. The structure labeled B in Figure 19-3 is the. a. capsid part b. protein c. sheath d. passage for nucleic acid e. all of these 145. A virus s protein coat is called a(an). a. capsule b. nodule c. receptor d. capsid e. virulent 146. A(an) is a preparation of weakened or killed pathogens. a. vaccine b. virulent c. viroid d. antibody e. antiviral Figure 19 4

15 147. Look at both cycles shown in Figure During which cycle is the host cell destroyed quickly and what are these viruses called? a. Lytic Cycle, Virulent c. Lytic Cycle, Temporate b. Lysogenic Cycle, Virulent d. Lysogenic Cycle, Temporate e. None of these 148. Each stage of the cycles shown in Figure 19-4 is labeled with a letter. Which letter indicates the stage at which the bacteriophage s DNA becomes a part of the host cell s DNA (a prophage)? 149. During, a pilli bridge forms between two bacterial cells, and genes move from one cell to another. a. the lytic cycle b. the lysogenic cycle c. conjugation d. replication e. plasmidization 150. The process of converting nitrogen into a form plants can use is called. a. fertilization b. nitrogen fixation c. conjugation d. nitrification e. denitrification A student placed a disk of filter paper in each of the following solutions: disinfectant 1, disinfectant 2, disinfectant 3, and distilled water. While the four disks were soaking in their respective solutions, she streaked a sterile nutrient agar dish with a culture of E. coli bacteria. Then, she placed each disk carefully onto the nutrient agar dish, placed the lid on the dish, taped it shut, and incubated the dish at 37ºC for several days. Figure 19-5 shows how the nutrient agar dish looked on Day 1 and Day 4. Figure What is the control in the experiment shown in Figure 19-5? a. The agar with no bacterial growth is the control. b. The disk soaked in distilled water is the control. c. The disks being made of the same material is the control. d. The disk soaked in disinfectant 1 is the control. e. The results from day 1 is the control How can the student measure the effectiveness of each disinfectant shown in Figure 19-5? a. The student can measure the zone of inhibition. b. More time is necessary to determing the effectiveness of the solution in which each disk was soaked. c. The student can measure the width of the area around each disk where bacteria have not grown to determine the effectiveness of the solution in which each disk was soaked. d. The student can measure the distance the disks sunk into the agar to determin the effectiveness of the solution in which each disk was soaked. e. Both A and C

16 153. Look at the results of the experiment shown in Figure Why do you think the different disinfectants are not equally effective against the E. coli bacteria? a. Disinfectants act the same way to combat bacterial growth, so it must be another variable in the experiment that caused these results. b. Different disinfectants may have different concentrations of their active ingrediant or may diffuse through the agar more or less quickly. c. There s no way to know but it s probably experimental error. d. Disinfectants act differently to combat bacterial growth. Some disinfectants are more effective at controlling one species of bacteria than another. e. Both B and D are possible 154. In a species that has become, all members have died, and the species has ceased to exist Earth s least dense elements, including hydrogen and, formed the planet s first atmosphere It is possible that RNA was the first information-storing molecule, but over time, became the primary way in which genetic information is stored and transmitted. 157., which are fossilized remains of single-celled organisms similar to modern bacteria, exist in rocks that are more than 3.5 billion years old As the Paleozoic Era closed, a(an), which is the dying out of many types of living things at one time, occurred The record provides evidence about the history of life on Earth After Precambrian Time, the main divisions of the geologic time scale are eras and In Miller and Urey s experiment, several, which are the building blocks of proteins, began to accumulate The theory proposes that eukaryotic cells arose from living communities of several prokaryotic organisms is the process by which two species evolve in response to changes in each other over time. Figure 17 1

17 164. Use Figure 17-1 to determine the approximate half-life of carbon-14. A. 2.5 thousand years C. 1/2 fraction of carbon-14 B. 5.7 thousand years D thousand years 165. According to Figure 17-1, how many half-lives have passed if a fossil has 1/8 of its original amount of carbon-14? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D A fossil bone was found to contain about 1/16 of the amount of carbon-14 that was originally present. Use Figure 17-1 to determine the approximate age of the bone. A. 23,000 years old B. 17,000 years old C. 11,400 years old D. 5,700 years old 167. According to Figure 17-1, in which case would carbon-14 be more useful for dating: A. wooden beams in Native American cave dwellings, which probably are less than 7000 years old. B. the fossil of an early mammal that is probably almost 100,000 years old. C. a mosquito trapped in amber that is probably more than 65 million years old. D. none of these 168. As carbon-14 decays, it changes to nitrogen-14, which is released as a gas. Refer to Figure 17-1 to predict how the amount of nitrogen gas produced would change over the period of radioactive decay. Why does that change take place? A. The amount of nitrogen gas produced by radioactive decay would increase throughout the period of decay. B. The amount of nitrogen gas produced by radioactive decay would decline throughout the period of decay. C. The largest amount of nitrogen gas is produced at the beginning. This is when the greatest proportion of carbon-14 decays, with progressively smaller fractions decaying (and correspondingly smaller amounts of nitrogen gas produced) over time. D. both B and C Geologic Time Scale Era Period End Date (in millions of years ago) Cenozoic Quaternary present Tertiary 1.8 Mesozoic Cretaceous 65 Jurassic 145 Triassic 208 Paleozoic Permian 245 Carboniferous 290 Devonian 360 Silurian 410 Ordovician 440 Cambrian 505 Precambrian Time Vendian 544

18 Figure How many geologic periods are shown in Figure 17-2, and which is the earliest? A. 16, Precambrian C. 4, Precambrian B. 12, Quaternary D. 12, Vendian 170. The Paleozoic Era ended with the disappearance of many land and aquatic species. Use Figure 17-2 to name the period in which that event took place. A. Cambrian B. Permian C. Cretaceous D. Triassic 171. Use Figure 17-2 to determine the length in years of the Silurian Period. A. 30 million years B. 50 million years C. 70 million years D. 410 million years 172. The end of the Mesozoic Era marks the extinction of dinosaurs. How long ago did the dinosaurs become extinct? A. 65 billion years B. 1.8 billion years C. 65 million years D. 1.8 million years 173. The first marsupials, a group that includes the modern kangaroo, evolved about 100 million years ago. According to Figure 17-2, during which geologic period did marsupials evolve? A. Mesozoic B. Jurassic C. Cretaceous D. Cenozoic Short Answer Figure Using Figure 7-1, Identify the structure or function of the following: 29. Name structure G 30. Function of structure F 31. Name Structure E 175. Using Figure 7-1, identify the structure or function of the following: 32. Name structure M (you may use the acronym) 33. Function of structure O

19 34. Name structure L 35. Function oof structure N (one word) Modified True/False Indicate whether the sentence or statement is true or false. If false, change the identified word or phrase to make the sentence or statement true After his voyage on the Beagle, Charles Darwin wondered whether similar species from the Galápagos Islands could once have been members of the same species. Charles Darwin came to realize that organisms of the same species are identical. According to Lamarck, the sea floor can be pushed up to form mountains by forces within Earth. In Charles Darwin s time, many people thought that Earth and its living things were formed about a few thousand years ago. Evidence that the surface of a mountain was once under the sea includes the presence of marine fossils on the mountain. Lyell hypothesized that human populations are kept in check by war, disease, and famine. In 1858, Alfred Russel Wallace sent Charles Darwin an essay proposing an explanation for evolution that was very similar to Darwin s. Artificial selection as practiced by farmers is also called natural selection. In natural selection, human breeders, rather than the environment, select the variations of traits to be passed to offspring. According to Darwin, the word selection would be applied to organisms adapted to survive and reproduce in their particular environments. The term fitness refers to an organism s ability to survive and reproduce in a specific environment. The fact that species today look different from their ancestors can be described as descent with modification. According to the concept of natural variation, living and extinct species evolved from the same ancestors. According to Charles Darwin, individuals best suited to their environment survive and reproduce most successfully. According to Charles Darwin, members of a species must share limited resources. Numeric Response A student put together the experimental setup shown below. The selectively permeable membrane is permeable to both types of solute molecules shown.

20 Figure Look at Figure 7-2. Describe the movement of the D molecules on side A. What will happen to these molecules over time? a. All of the D molecules will move from side A to side B. b. Some of the D molecules will move from side A to side B, but their net movement will be from side B to side A. c. The net movement of D molecules will be from side A to side B. d. The D molecules will not move Once equilibrium is reached in the apparatus shown in Figure 7-2, will the molecules continue to move? a. Yes, both kinds of molecules will continue to move across the membrane until one is on side A and the other is on side B. b. No, once equilibrium is reached the molecules stop crossing the membrane. c. No, once equilibrium is reached, the molecules completely stop moving. d. Yes, both kinds of molecules will continue to move across the membrane; however, there will be no net change in the concentration of either molecule For Figure 7-2, imagine that the membrane is impermeable to both solutes, but is permeable to water. Consider the osmosis and tonicity of the apparatus. Which of the following would you predict and how would you describe the tonicity of side A relative to side B. a. The net osmosis of water in this situation will be from side A to side B because side A is hypertonic to side B. b. The net osmosis of water in this situation will be from side A to side B because side A is hypotonic to side B. c. There will be no net osmosis of water in this situation because the solutions are isotonic. d. The net osmosis of water in this situation will be from side B to side A because side A is hypertonic to side B. Other

21 Figure What is the serious human disease whose pathway of infection is illustrated in Figure 20-1, and what organism causes the disease? a. Hemorhagic Fever, Ebola Virus d. African Sleeping Sickness, Trypanosoma brucei b. Malaria, Plasmodium falciparum e. Trich, Trichomonas vaginalis c. AIDS, HIV 195. Infection by the protist shown in Figure 20-1 produces periods of acute illness followed by periods of reduced symptoms. These periods follow each other in repeating cycles. Predict which part of the cycle of infection results in an abrupt change throughout the body, thus corresponding to the periods of acute illness and an increase in symptoms. a. A - Acute illness follows each time the person is bitten by a mosquito. b. B - Acute illness follows each time the protozoan reproduces in the liver. c. C - Acute illness follows each time the protozoan enters a red blood cell. d. D - Acute illness follows each time the protozoan reproduces within red blood cells. e. E - Acute illness follows when thousands of the parasites break out of red blood cells.