Unit 9 - Evolution Practice Quiz

Transcription

1 Unit 9 - Evolution Practice Quiz Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Lamarck s theory of evolution includes the concept that new organs in a species appear as a result of a. continual increases in population size. b. the actions of organisms as they use or fail to use body structures. c. an unchanging local environment. d. the natural variations already present within the population of organisms. 2. In an experiment, suppose that the wings of fruit flies were clipped short for fifty generations. The fifty-first generations emerged with normal-length wings. This observation would tend to disprove the idea that evolution is based on a. inheritance of natural variations. b. inheritance of acquired characteristics (use and disuse). c. natural selection. d. survival of the fittest. 3. According to Darwin s theory of natural selection, individuals who survive are the ones best adapted for their environment. Their survival is due to the a. possession of adaptations developed through use. b. possession of inherited adaptations that maximize fitness. c. lack of competition within the species. d. choices made by plant and animal breeders. 4. When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is a. natural selection. c. artificial variation. b. artificial selection. d. survival of the fittest. Figure In humans, the pelvis and femur, or thigh bone, are involved in walking. In whales, the pelvis and femur shown in Figure 15 1 are a. examples of fossils. c. acquired traits. b. vestigial structures. d. examples of natural variation.

2 6. Whales use their forelimbs for swimming. Moles use their forelimbs for digging. Both organisms, however, have similar bones in their forelimbs, including a radius and an ulna. This is an example of what? a. Homologous structures. c. Vestigial structures. b. Analagous structures. d. Adaptive radiation. 7. Which concept(s) is/are included in the modern theory of evolution? a. descent with modification b. natural selection c. there is competition for limited resources d. all of the answers are correct 8. All the genes of all members of a particular population make up the population s a. relative frequency. c. genotype. b. phenotype. d. gene pool. 9. What is the main source of new traits that have not been present in a population before? a. Genotypes and phenotypes. c. Gene shuffling. b. Mutations. d. Directional selection and disruptive selection. 10. Gene shuffling includes the independent movement of chromosomes during meoisis as well as a. mutations from radiation. c. crossing-over. b. changes in the frequencies of alleles. d. mutations from chemicals. 11. In a population of finches in which one group of birds has a short, parrotlike beak and another group has a long, narrow beak, what process has probably occurred? a. directional selection c. stabilizing selection b. disruptive selection d. genetic drift 12. If a mutation introduces a new skin color in a lizard population, which factor might determine whether the frequency of the new allele will increase? a. how many other alleles are present c. how many phenotypes the population b. whether the mutation makes some lizards more fit for their environment than other lizards has d. whether the mutation was caused by nature or by human intervention 13. Genetic drift is a. none of the answers are correct c. a change in allele frequencies b. gene shuffling d. unchanging allele frequencies. 14. The type of genetic drift that follows the colonization of a new habitat by a small group of individuals is called a. the Hardy-Weinberg principle. c. directional selection. b. the founder effect. d. stabilizing selection. 15. The genetic equilibrium of a population can be disturbed by each of the following EXCEPT a. nonrandom mating. b. movement in and out of the population c. a large population size. d. mutations. 16. The separation of populations by barriers such as rivers, mountains, or bodies of water is called a. temporal isolation. c. behavioral isolation. b. geographic isolation. d. genetic equilibrium. 17. The process by which two species, for example, a flower and a pollinating insect, evolve in response to changes in each other over time is called a. convergent evolution. c. coevolution.

3 b. adaptive radiation. d. punctuated equilibrium. 18. A single species that has evolved into several different forms that live in different ways has undergone a. adaptive radiation. c. punctuated equilibrium. b. coevolution. d. mass extinction. 19. A pattern in which species experience long, stable periods interrupted by brief periods of rapid evolutionary change is called a. convergent evolution. c. adaptive radiation. b. coevolution. d. punctuated equilibrium. 20. A population of salamanders includes both green-spotted and white individuals. The salamanders live in an area with heavy plant growth. What is the BEST prediction for how this population could change over time? a. The white salamanders will decrease because this type will not develop lungs. b. The white salamanders will increase becasue they are more likely to find food. c. The green-spotted salamander population will decrease because this type is more likely to develop disease. d. The green-spotted salamander population will increase because this type is less likely to be seen and eaten by predators. 21. An example of an adaptation that might increase fitness is a. a desert cactus with thin, sharp needles instead of leaves to prevent water loss. b. mammal with white fur in a tropical rain forest. c. a bird that migrates across the pacific ocean every year and eats only corn. d. a hunting dog that has been trained to perform circus tricks. 22. Which population of organisms would be in greatest danger of becoming extinct? a. A population with few variations living in a stable environment. b. A population with few variations living in an unstable environment. c. A population with many variations living in a stable environment. d. A population with many variations living in an unstable environment. 23. The graph above shows the variation in average beak size in a group of finches in the Galapagos Islands over time. These finches eat mostly seeds. Use the graph to answer the question that follows. Beak size in these finches is correlated to the size of seeds they can eat. What can be inferred from the graph? a. In wet years, the finches that survive are those that have larger beaks and can therefore eat larger seeds b. In all years, the finches that survive are those that have larger beaks and can therefore eat larger seeds c. In dry years, the finches that survive are those that have larger beaks and can therefore eat larger seeds

4 d. In all years, the finches that survive are those that have smaller beaks and can therefore eat smaller seeds 24. The diagram above shows possible evolutionary relationships between some organisms. What does the diagram imply about warbler finches and armadillos? a. They are unrelated b. They are equally related to glyptodonts c. They share a common ancestor d. They did not evolve from older forms of life. 25. Refer to the figure above to help you answer the question. Tortoises that have shells with higher openings can eat taller plants. Others can only reach vegetation close to the ground. Judging from the differences in the tortoises shells, what kind of vegetation would you expect to find on the large and small islands? a. Both islands would have a dense ground cover of low growing plants. b. The large island is less grassy, and plants grow with their leaves farther above ground. c. The small island is less grassy, and plants grow with their leaves farther above ground. d. The land is mostly dry on both islands with minimal shrub growth. 26. What evidence from geology, or the structure and history of planet Earth, influenced Darwin? a. evidence indicating that volcanoes contribute to natural selection b. evidence showing that the center of Earth is liquid c. evidence showing that rocks can change from one type to another d. evidence indicating that Earth was much older than was previously beleived

5 27. Urey and Miller subjected water, ammonia, methane, and hydrogen to heating and cooling cycles and jolts of electricity in an attempt to do what? a. determine how the dinosaurs became extinct b. find out whether the conditions of early earth could have formed complex organic compounds c. determine the age of fossils d. find out how ozone forms in the atmosphere 28. According to the most widely accepted view of evolution in the scientific community, humans... a. are descended from monkeys. b. are unrelated to monkeys. c. share a common ancestor with monkeys. d. are more evolved than monkeys. 29. Miller and Urey s experiments attempted to demonstrate a. how Earth first formed. b. whether DNA or RNA evolved first. c. whether organic molecules could have formed before life was present. d. how the deepest part of Earth formed. 30. The diagram above shows the layers of rock found at four different locations. In which layer would you probably find the oldest fossils? a. A b. B c. C d. D 31. Refering to the diagram above, if you wanted to find the absolute age of one of the fossils in Location 1, Layer B, which technique would you use? a. identify index fossils in the layer b. use radioactive dating c. measure the distance between Layer B and Layer D d. compare the fossils in Layer C to Layer A

6 Unit 9 - Evolution Practice Quiz Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 376 OBJ: NAT: C.3.b D.3 STA: BL.8.f BL.8.g KEY: comprehension 2. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 376 OBJ: NAT: C.3.b D.3 STA: BL.8 BL.7 KEY: evaluation 3. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 381 OBJ: NAT: C.3.a C.3.d C.3.d STA: BL.7.d BL.8.a BL.6.g KEY: evaluation 4. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 379 OBJ: NAT: C.3.a C.3.d C.3.d STA: BL.3.a KEY: comprehension 5. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 384 OBJ: NAT: C.3.a C.3.c C.3.d STA: BL.8.e BL.8.f KEY: application 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 384 OBJ: NAT: C.3.a C.3.c C.3.d STA: BL.4.d KEY: evaluation 7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 376 OBJ: NAT: C.3.a C.3.a C.3.d C.6.c STA: BL.8 KEY: analysis 8. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 394 OBJ: NAT: C.2.a C.3.a STA: BL.7 KEY: knowledge 9. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 394 OBJ: NAT: C.2.a C.3.a STA: BL.2 BL.7.c KEY: knowledge 10. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 395 OBJ: NAT: C.2.a C.3.a STA: BL.2.a KEY: analysis 11. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 399 OBJ: NAT: C.2.c C.3.b STA: BL.7.a BL.8.a KEY: application 12. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L3 REF: p. 397 p. 398 OBJ: NAT: C.2.c C.3.b STA: BL.7.c BL.7.d BL.8.a KEY: evaluation 13. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 400 OBJ: NAT: C.2.c C.3.b STA: BL.8.c KEY: comprehension 14. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 400 OBJ: NAT: C.2.c C.3.b STA: BL.8.c BL.6.b KEY: application 15. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 401 OBJ: NAT: C.2.c C.3.d STA: BL.7

7 KEY: analysis 16. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 405 OBJ: NAT: C.3.a C.3.d STA: BL.8.d KEY: knowledge 17. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 437 OBJ: NAT: C.3.a G.3 STA: BL.8.f KEY: application 18. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 436 OBJ: NAT: C.3.a G.3 STA: BL.7.d KEY: application 19. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: L2 REF: p. 439 OBJ: NAT: C.3.a G.3 STA: BL.7 KEY: comprehension 20. ANS: D PTS: ANS: A PTS: ANS: B PTS: ANS: C PTS: ANS: C PTS: ANS: C PTS: ANS: D PTS: ANS: B PTS: ANS: C PTS: ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: L1 REF: p. 424 OBJ: NAT: C.3.b G.3 KEY: comprehension 30. ANS: A PTS: ANS: B PTS: 1