Unit 6 FRQs Question 1: Rostow and Wallerstein Question 1: Agglomeration industries: Silicon Valley

Transcription

1 Unit 6 FRQs Question 1: Rostow and Wallerstein Question 1: Agglomeration industries: Silicon Valley Question 3: Industrial Location: Auto Industry in the United States

2 Question 1: Weber's Least Cost Theory: Location of Ethanol Plants in the US Question 3: Gender Development/Education Question 3: International Division of Labor

3 Question 2: Location of Services: Call Centers Question 1: Location of Industries: Maquiladora Plants in Mexico

4 Question 1: Core-Periphery Model Question 3: Rostow's Stages of Development

5 Chapter 9 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which is the least developed region among the following? A) North America B) Eastern Europe C) Southwest Asia D) Western and Central Europe E) East Asia 2) The total value of the output of goods and services in a year in a country is its A) gross national income. B) primary economic sector. C) productivity index. D) value added. E) gross domestic product. 3) Gross domestic product (GDP) is the A) total value of the outputs minus inputs of goods and services produced in a country during a year. B) total value of exports of goods and services produced in a country during a year. C) total value of outputs of goods and services produced in a country during a year. D) total value of human capital development in a country during a year. E) total value of investments made in domestic and foreign sources of revenue during a year. 4) An example of a primary sector activity is A) education. B) manufacturing. C) banking. D) retailing. E) mining. 5) Processing of computer information is an example of which sector of the economy? A) sixth percentile B) primary and secondary C) primary D) tertiary E) the data sector 6) The secondary sector of the economy includes which of the following? A) data processing B) mining C) government D) construction E) banking 7) In MDCs, employment is increasing more rapidly in which of the following sectors? A) farming B) primary C) secondary D) tertiary E) fishing 8) The primary sector of the economy includes which of the following? A) data processing B) beverage bottling C) government D) sheep herding E) banking 9) The value of a product minus the costs of raw materials and energy is A) gross domestic product. B) productivity. C) tertiary sector analysis. D) market value. E) value added. 10) is an example of a secondary sector activity. A) Banking B) Farming C) Manufacturing D) Secondary education E) Professional football 11) In less developed countries, consumer goods such as telephones, televisions, and motor vehicles are A) available for sharing by a large number of people. B) unknown and unfamiliar to most people. C) essential to rural life. D) familiar to many but owned by relatively few. E) available only through local manufacture. 12) Examples of material conditions include A) drinking water and sewage systems. B) systems of thought. C) religious institutions. D) division of jobs into different sectors. E) political institutions. 13) A country that has a higher level of development exhibits a(n) A) improvement in material conditions. B) growth of the output of goods and services. C) improvement of a product compared to the needed labor. D) division of jobs into different sectors. E) growth of political institutions. 14) Per capita GDP is a poor indicator of which of the following? A) the approximate level of material well being in a country B) the number of countries below the poverty level C) the distribution of wealth within a country D) the spatial distribution of global wealth E) potential for providing all citizens with a comfortable

6 life 15) Per capita GDP is a good indicator of which of the following? A) the approximate level of spiritual well being in a country B) the number of countries below sea level C) the distribution of wealth within a country D) the political dimensions of a population E) potential for providing all citizens with a comfortable life 16) Which of the following is an indicator of a country's level of development? A) the number of millionaires B) the number of newspapers C) crude death rate D) natural death rate E) natural increase rate 17) The inequality-adjusted human development index of the United States is A) inferior to that of Canada and most Western European countries. B) greater than any other country in the world. C) inferior to that of Canada but superior to most Western European countries. D) greater than Canada because a higher percentage of people in the United States have quality health care. E) inferior to Western European countries but far superior to Canada. 18) The HDI of Latin American countries is A) inferior to that of Canada and most Western European countries. B) greater than the United States but less than Canada. C) inferior to that of Canada but superior to most Western European countries. D) greater than that of Canada and twice as great as that of the United States. E) inferior to Western European countries and far superior to Canada. 19) Compared to less developed countries, more developed countries have higher rates of A) literacy. B) childhood mortality. C) infectious disease. D) illiteracy. E) environmental pollution. 20) People are more productive in more developed countries because they A) work harder. B) have access to more technology. C) have a low amount of value added per person. D) are consistently better educated. E) understand their jobs better than workers in less developed countries. 21) Even though a higher percentage of GDP is spent on education in less developed countries, A) more women than men have access to education in LDCs. B) LDCs spend less per pupil than MDCs. C) LDCs have smaller average class sizes than MDCs. D) literacy rates are higher in urban areas of LDCs than in many MDCs. E) levels of educational attainment are higher in LDCs. 22) If a country has a large number of publishers and globally esteemed universities, you might surmise that the country is most likely A) neither an LDC nor an MDC. B) an MDC. C) an LDC. D) an LDC that has some of the world's top universities. E) an MDC that has some of the world's lowest literacy rates. 23) Compared to less developed countries, more developed countries have lower A) percentages of GDP spent on education. B) literacy rates. C) numbers of teachers available per pupil. D) numbers of years attending school. E) amounts of spending per student. 24) The difference in per capita GDP between the more developed and less developed regions is A) widening. B) remaining constant. C) decreasing. D) zero. E) cycling up and down. 25) The North American region has high rates of material development but troubling levels of A) wealth. B) inequality. C) financial and management services. D) spiritual development. E) educational attainment. 26) The Gender Inequality Index (GII) A) compares the level of development of women in a country to the average development level of women in the world. B) compares the levels of indicators for females to those of males within a country. C) is composed of the same measures as the HDI but is applied only to women instead of the entire population. D) combines economic and political indicators of empowerment. E) cannot be used as an indicator of development in the United States. 27) Severe gender inequality is a challenge to development because A) it leads to smaller family sizes, and families with fewer

7 child laborers cannot earn enough money to pay for their rent and utilities. B) it is associated with higher literacy rates, higher economic vitality, and lower infant mortality rates. C) it excludes men from the informal economy, wasting a major economic asset. D) it severely limits the economic and social mobility of women, as well as families that are headed by women. E) it does not allow men and boys the freedom to attend the schools and seek the jobs that are best suited to them. 28) In terms of the GII, most African countries have A) rates far below the United States and Western Europe. B) rates that exceed the United States and Western Europe owing to African investment in centers of higher learning. C) rates that are greater than the United States but less than Europe. D) core-periphery models. E) weak national economies. 29) Since 1990, most countries have seen a decline in previous patterns of A) gender inequality. B) gender equality. C) economic inequality. D) gender dynamics. E) innovative agricultural methods. world, altogether they consume about energy as LDCs. A) twice as much total B) the same amount of total C) five times as much total D) half as much nonrenewable energy but five times as much renewable E) one-tenth as much 34) Petroleum reserves in Southwest Asia and North Africa are A) clustered primarily in the Persian (Arabian) Gulf states. B) dispersed throughout the region. C) concentrated primarily along the Mediterranean Sea. D) primarily in Syria and Iraq. E) clustered in fields along the western shore of the Red Sea. 35) Saudi Arabia has successfully employed the international trade alternative primarily because of A) consumer spending. B) petroleum reserves. C) regional cooperation. D) traditional social customs. E) its strategic distribution location. 30) Since 1990, most countries have seen an increase in A) gender equality. B) gender inequality. C) gender indices. D) economic indices. E) market forces. 31) Which of the following is not an indicator of global gender inequality? A) Women on average have only two-thirds of the income of men in MDCs. B) Women have much lower incomes than men in LDCs. C) Female life expectancy is less than males in every country of the world. D) Female literacy is much lower than males in Sub- Saharan Africa. E) Women hold less than one-fourth of managerial jobs in LDCs where data are available. 32) Gender inequality is a challenge to development because A) it leads to larger family sizes. B) it is associated with higher literacy rates and lower infant mortality rates. C) it excludes all women from both the formal and informal economy. D) it greatly enhances the economic and social mobility of women. E) men are responsible for all economic development in impoverished areas. 33) Although there are fewer developed countries in the 36) Analysis of the maps in this chapter shows that the United States has natural gas fields in A) Texas but not Oklahoma. B) the Gulf of Mexico but not the Midwest. C) the East but not the West. D) many different areas. E) the North but not the South. 37) Analysis of the maps in this chapter shows that the United States has petroleum production A) sufficient to meet its needs without further imports. B) that is now completely shut down due to taxation. C) inferior to nearly every other country. D) at significant levels but must still import oil from other countries. E) at levels greater than any other country. 38) The maps of U.S. natural gas fields in this chapter show that the United States has A) few natural gas fields in Texas and Ohio. B) the greatest concentration of gas fields in Illinois and Wisconsin.

8 C) a greater concentration of natural gas fields in the north. D) a high concentration of natural gas fields in the Gulf of Mexico. E) the lowest number of natural gas fields in Oklahoma and Texas. 39) The United States has A) lesser coal and natural gas reserves than China. B) greater natural gas reserves than Russian and lesser coal reserves than China. C) a greater concentration of coal reserves in the Gulf of Mexico. D) more coal reserves than China or Russia. E) less coal than any other large country. 40) The Chernobyl incident in 1986 involved A) a nuclear explosion high in the atmosphere. B) a nuclear missile that misfired and exploded. C) a nuclear power accident. D) a massive leak and fire at an oil exploration platform. E) an explosion and fire at a natural gas field. 41) The Chernobyl incident occurred A) in the United States. B) in Cuba. C) in the Soviet Union. D) in India. E) in China. 42) According to the international trade approach to development, a country should identify all but which of its following assets? A) abundant agricultural products B) high quality manufactured goods C) imports that it should limit D) international consumer preferences E) abundant mineral resources 43) The biggest problem in promoting development through the international trade alternative is A) increased demand for many goods. B) increased price of petroleum. C) regional cooperation. D) unequal distribution of resources. E) consumer demand expanding faster than manufacturing can increase. 44) The principal benefit of the self-sufficiency approach is to promote A) balanced growth of all economic sectors. B) global competitiveness for local industries. C) the maintenance of a large bureaucracy. D) unequal distribution of resources. E) international trade. 45) In contrast to the international trade approach, the selfsufficiency approach to development A) begins when an elite group initiates innovative activities. B) attempts to result in uneven resource development. and market correction indices. C) suffers from market stagnation. D) attempts to spread investment through all sectors of the economy. E) attempts to identify appropriate developmental stages. 46) Traditional barriers to international trade have included A) low taxes on imports. B) making domestic goods more expensive. C) eliminating quotas on imports. D) requiring licenses for importers. E) strong domestic and international demand. 47) The biggest problem faced by less developed countries in financing development is A) trade negotiations with more developed countries. B) identifying unique economic assets. C) inability to repay loans. D) promoting dependency. E) currency inflation. 48) What do critics charge are some effects of Structural Adjustment Programs for refinancing loans to LDCs? A) more efficient civil service B) diverting investment from weapons and training for the military to social needs such as health and education C) investment benefiting the poor, not just the elite D) more dissemination of information to the public E) workers in state enterprises losing their jobs and support for dependent citizens being cut 49) All of the following are considered more developed regions except A) Southwest Asia and North Africa. B) North America. C) Australia and New Zealand. D) Europe. E) Western Europe. 50) The major economic asset of the Russian region is A) Asia's greatest levels of agricultural productivity. B) the development of tertiary industries. C) the production of consumer goods. D) its oil reserves. E) diversified industrial manufacturing. 51) Southwest Asia and North Africa may become more developed primarily because of what characteristic? A) abundant petroleum reserves B) desert climate C) Islamic religious principles D) democratic reforms E) dictatorships 52) Population density was traditionally low in North Africa because of A) its wet climate. B) its dry climate. C) Dutch colonial activity. D) its high arithmetic density.

9 E) its low fertility rates. 53) Examining the sub-national variation in development for many countries, such as Brazil, China, or Mexico, reveals A) development can be attributed only to outside forces. B) cities are relatively underdeveloped compared to the agricultural lands. C) wealth is concentrated in the cooler, mountainous regions. D) almost no variations in wealth and development exist between different subnational regions. E) substantial variations in development exist at subnational scales. 54) According to Rostow's development model, the process of development begins when A) a high percentage of national wealth is allocated to nonproductive activities. B) an elite group initiates innovative activities. C) take-off industries achieve technical advances. D) workers become more skilled and specialized. E) banking institutions are sufficiently mature. 55) If the per capita GDP in a given country is about $1,500, this indicates that it is a A) petroleum exporting state. B) less developed country. C) more developed country. D) country with a high gross domestic product. E) country with evenly distributed wealth. 56) Which one of the following statements is INCORRECT? A) The higher the GDP of a country, the more equal its income distribution. B) The primary sector accounts for a larger share of GDP for LDCs than MDCs. C) Workers in MDCs are more productive than those in LDCs. D) The HDI is a function of economics, social, and demographic indicators. E) Women participate in formal and informal economies even in LDCs with high levels of gender inequality. 57) The large percentage of population involved in agriculture in China indicates that A) the country imports most of its food. B) few people are unemployed. C) most people consume an inadequate amount of calories. D) most people must produce food for their own survival. E) factory production cannot expand. 58) The highest levels of development within Latin America are generally found in A) Central America. B) the Caribbean islands. C) the interior of South America. D) southern South America. E) the countries on the Caribbean coast of South America. 59) Sub-Saharan Africa has seen some development because of A) the colonial legacy, which has benefited every country in the region. B) poor leadership. C) the capacity of land to produce food. D) investment in the infrastructure of port cities, despite ignoring infrastructure in many other areas. E) overworked agricultural land and declining output. 60) Development prospects are limited in some North African countries because of A) the lack of colonization and trade with Europe. B) poor leadership. C) the great amount of petroleum controlled by OPEC. D) their limited reserves of petroleum. E) overworked agricultural land and declining output. 61) Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Fair Trade movement? A) Standards intending to protect workers are instituted in LDCs. B) Fair Trade coffee has become available in most North American cities. C) Cooperatives intend to benefit local farmers and artisans, rather than absentee corporate owners. D) Employers must pay fair wages and comply with environmental and safety standards. E) Protection of workers' rights is already a high priority for multinational corporations.

10 Chapter 9 Key 1. C 2. E 3. C 4. E 5. D 6. D 7. D 8. D 9. E 10. C 11. D 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. E 16. E 17. A 18. A 19. A 20. B 21. B 22. B 23. A 24. A 25. B 26. B 27. D 28. A 29. A 30. A 31. C 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. B 36. D 37. D 38. D 39. D 40. C 41. C 42. C 43. D 44. A 45. D 46. D 47. C 48. E 49. A 50. D 51. A 52. B 53. E 54. B 55. B 56. A 57. D 58. D 59. D 60. D 61. E

11 1) The cottage industry system involved manufacturing A) of hand-made luxury goods. B) in the home. C) of steam engines and other cottage-sized machines. D) in small factories. E) cheeses and pastries. 2) In the 1700s, water pollution increased significantly when the chemical industry began to contribute to the textile industry through methods of A) bleaching and processing. B) dyeing and purification. C) food processing and purification. D) bleaching and dyeing. E) dyeing and the creation of synthetic fabrics. Chapter 11 Multiple Choice Questions B) rail lines connected Paris to France's southern coast by C) France had a more comprehensive rail network than the United Kingdom in D) Poland had no rail lines in E) rail lines connected London to many parts of the island of Britain by ) Given the earlier history of the chemical industry, we can hypothesize that its 20th-century contributions to the textile industry began to include A) bleaching and processing. B) dyeing and water purification. C) food processing and purification. D) the creation of synthetic fabrics. E) bleaching and dyeing. 7) The Industrial Revolution began in A) Great Britain. B) Japan. C) Russia. D) the United States. E) the Fertile Crescent. 8) The Industrial Revolution began in A) the late 1500s. B) the late 1600s. C) the late 1700s. D) the late 1800s. E) the late 1900s. 3) An analysis of this map of Europe indicates that railways A) were more concentrated in France and Germany before they appeared in the United Kingdom. B) tended to be built first in Eastern Europe before spreading westward. C) were built in France before they were built in the United Kingdom. D) in the United Kingdom first appeared near London and were later built in northern England. E) were built in northern England before they appeared in southern England. 4) An analysis of this map indicates that railways A) were not built in Russia until B) were not built in France until C) were not built in Russia until after D) were built in Russia, France, and Serbia by E) were not built in Greece until after ) This map of railway diffusion indicates that during the Industrial Revolution A) nearly all of Eastern Europe was connected by rail in 9) Prior to the Industrial Revolution, industry was geographically A) clustered. B) concentrated. C) dispersed. D) random. E) nonexistent. 10) What two location factors influence more industries to remain in the northeastern United States and northwestern Europe? A) global communications and fluid capital B) cheap labor and high consumer demand C) availability of raw materials and cheap energy D) fluid capital and advantageous tariffs E) skilled labor and rapid delivery to market 11) Approximately three-fourths of the world's industrial production is concentrated in three regions, including which of the following? A) Eastern North America and Southeast Asia B) Eastern Europe and southern Europe C) northwestern Europe and eastern South America D) East Asia and Southwest Asia E) eastern North America and northwestern Europe 12) Outside of the three world regions where industry is

12 concentrated, the next two largest industrial producing countries are A) India and Pakistan. B) Brazil and Canada. C) Russia and Brazil. D) China and India. E) Brazil and India. 13) The Po River basin in Italy A) contains one-fourth of the country's industry. B) has cheaper labor compared to southern Italy and the island of Sicily. C) has expensive hydroelectricity from the Alps but inexpensive nuclear energy from France. D) is Southern Europe's newest industrial area. E) has inexpensive hydroelectricity from the Alps. 14) The map of North America's industrial areas shows that A) industry is dispersed evenly throughout the United States and Canada. B) the industrial regions of California are more extensive than those of the Midwest and the Northeast combined. C) Canada's far west and the U.S. South have become the continent's principal industrial zones. D) Canada's industrial areas are nearly as extensive as those of the northeastern United States. E) much of the region's industry is concentrated around or near the Great Lakes. 15) Western Europe's principal industrial areas include all but which of the following? A) the United Kingdom B) the Rhine-Ruhr valley C) the Mid-Rhine D) Northern Italy E) Portugal and western Spain 16) The map of East Asia's industrial areas indicates that the region's chief manufacturing bases include A) the Rhine-Ruhr valley. B) parts of southeastern China. C) parts of northwestern China. D) northern Japan. E) South Korea. 17) The map of East Asia's industrial areas indicates that the chief concentrations of manufacturing in the region include A) the White River valley. B) the river valley east of Wuhan. C) the river valley east of Shanghai. D) the western coast of Japan and eastern coast of Korea. E) central China. 18) According to the map, Canada's most important industrial area is A) Vancouver, British Columbia. B) the St. Lawrence Valley and Ontario Peninsula. C) the northern shore of Lake Superior. D) the sea ports of Nova Scotia. E) the entire southern border shared with the United States. 19) The main source of power for steam engines and blast ovens is produced from A) coal. B) dross. C) iron ore. D) nuclear power. E) biomass fuels. 20) What mining region has the most varied mineral deposits of the world, with over 1,000 minerals? A) the Ural mountains

13 B) the Tibetan plateau C) the mountains of central Thailand D) the Chilean Andes E) South Africa 21) The only step of the copper production process that is not significantly bulk-reducing is A) refining. B) concentration. C) mining. D) smelting. E) ore extraction. 22) The step of the copper production process that involves the crushing and grinding of particles is A) concentration. B) refining. C) mining. D) smelting. E) transportation. 23) The world's chief source for copper is A) Chile. B) Arizona. C) China. D) Brazil. E) Cuba. 24) A copper concentration mill tends to locate near a copper mine because it is a A) bulk-reducing industry. B) perishable industry. C) bulk-gaining industry. D) specialized manufacturer. E) fabrication concentration point. Nevada, New Mexico, and Montana. 26) An analysis of this map of the copper industry in the United States indicates that A) New Mexico has more foundries than Texas. B) more copper is smelted in Utah than in Arizona, Nevada, and Montana. C) more copper is mined in Utah, Arizona, Nevada, New Mexico, and Montana. D) the largest numbers of copper smelters are in California, Illinois, Arizona, and Florida. E) the largest numbers of copper smelters are in California, Arizona, and Utah. 27) Proximity to Russian consumers is the most significant industrial asset of which region? A) Moscow B) Kuznetsk C) Urals D) Volga E) Kamchatka 28) Metal fabrication plants are an example of a bulkgaining industry because A) the mills are near the mines. B) separate parts are combined to make more complex and massive products. C) refineries import most material from other countries. D) parts suppliers package shipments in bulk containers for processing in the plants. E) parts suppliers supply components with just-in-time management. 29) Situation costs are critical to a firm that wishes to A) avoid skilled laborers. B) minimize production costs inside the plant. C) minimize transport costs. D) identify unique characteristics of a particular industry. E) utilize a new technology. 30) Producers of automobiles select assembly plant locations primarily for their closer access to A) government subsidies. B) labor markets. C) markets for finished automobiles. D) raw materials. E) water transportation. 25) An analysis of this map of the copper industry in the United States indicates that A) New Mexico has more foundries than Texas. B) more copper is mined in Utah than in Arizona, Nevada, and Montana. C) the largest numbers of foundries are in California, Illinois, Ohio, and Pennsylvania. D) the largest numbers of foundries are in California, Illinois, Arizona, Texas, Florida, and Oregon. E) the largest numbers of foundries are in Arizona, 31) Beer bottling is an example of a A) perishable industry. B) specialized industry. C) bulk-gaining industry. D) communications-oriented industry. E) labor intensive industry. 32) Fabricated metal production is an example of a A) perishable industry. B) specialized industry. C) bulk-gaining industry. D) communications-oriented industry.

14 E) labor intensive industry. 33) Eastern North America became the continent's manufacturing center in part because it had access to the continent's A) largest markets. B) most extensive sources of essential raw materials. C) newest highway systems. D) most advantageous climate. E) oceangoing transportation links to Asia. 34) The Chicago area became a significant asset for the Western Great Lakes region owing to its steel industries and its A) access to the nation's transportation network. B) large market area. C) greater distance from raw materials essential for the steel industry. D) skilled labor force. E) cheap migrant labor. 35) The shift in steel production locations in the United States from the mid-nineteenth century until the midtwentieth century can best be described as A) starting in the Pittsburgh area and then migrating towards the Midwest before ending up on the East and West coasts, as well as the Chicago area. B) starting in the Pittsburgh area and then migrating towards the East and West coasts before moving to the South and Southeast. C) starting on the East and West coasts and then migrating towards the Midwest before ending up in the Pittsburgh area, as indicated by the football team called the Pittsburgh Steelers. D) starting on the East and West coasts and then migrating towards Pittsburgh before ending in the Midwest. E) starting in the Midwest and then migrating towards Pittsburgh before ending up on the East and West coasts. 36) In addition to integrated mills, about one-fourth of U.S. steel production is now attributed to A) minimills which utilize scrap metal in many U.S. locations. B) traditional mills in the South and Southeast. C) minimills which have revitalized the old steel producing center of Pittsburgh. D) nuclear-pellet generating plants in the Northeast. E) scrap metal from materials transported to the United States from China. D) the location of railroads. E) the location of waterways. 38) New U.S. automobile assembly plants have been built primarily in the A) Midwest and South, to minimize national distribution costs and reduce labor competition. B) Northeast and Midwest, to minimize access to labor markets and maximize access to Northeastern markets. C) Sunbelt, to minimize labor costs. D) West, to maximize access to Japan, South Korea, and China. E) Southeast, to avoid winter production costs. 39) The U.S. steel industry moved westward in the nineteenth century primarily because of better access to A) coal. B) iron ore. C) labor. D) transport. E) markets. 40) Minimills are more likely than integrated steel mills to select locations because of access to A) government subsidies. B) unskilled labor. C) markets. D) raw materials. E) fluid capital. 41) A company which uses more than one will often locate near break-of-bulk points. A) mode of transport B) consumer market C) raw material D) type of labor E) energy supply 42) In order to become a global industrial power, Japan had to overcome which of the following problems? A) high labor costs B) abundant energy sources C) distance from consumers D) weak consumer demand E) proximity to China 37) Because the motor vehicle assembly industry is typically described as a bulk-gaining industry as well as a just-in-time delivery system, the most important factor when selecting a location for a new Toyota or Honda assembly plant in the United States was A) minimizing the cost of shipping finished vehicles to its customers. B) minimizing the cost of shipping inputs and outputs in relation to customers. C) maximizing delivery time to customers.

15 43) As indicated on this map of automobile assembly plants, in an effort to reduce labor competition and thus keep wages lower, there are only A) three plants in Tennessee, one in South Carolina, two in Mississippi, and three in Illinois. B) three plants in the Midwest, four plants in the Northeast, and five plants in the South. C) two plants in the Midwest and more than 20 in the South. D) four plants in Tennessee, one in South Carolina, three in Mississippi, and three in Illinois. E) three plants in Tennessee, three in Kentucky, one in South Carolina, and four in Mississippi. 44) Although transportation costs rise because breaks in transportation, we can surmise that over very long distances the lowest-cost form of transporting goods is by A) truck. B) train. C) ship. D) airplane. E) rocket. 45) Containerization was developed to facilitate longdistance transport by before transferring to trucks and trains. A) truck B) train C) ship D) airplane E) rocket 46) As indicated on the map of minimill facilities in the U.S., A) minimills are primarily situated close to Northeastern markets. B) most Nucor operations are concentrated in Mississippi, California, Illinois, Kentucky, and Maine. C) most Nucor operations are concentrated in Mississippi, Alabama, North Carolina, and Florida. D) minimills operate in nearly every U.S. state. E) Nucor has operations in at least 20 different states. 47) According to these charts, the U.S. share of global steel production A) decreased from 30 percent in 1980 to 18 percent in B) decreased from 44 percent in 1980 to 7 percent in C) increased from 16 percent in 1980 to 19 percent in D) decreased from 16 percent in 1980 to 8 percent in E) decreased from 16 percent in 1980 to 6 percent in ) According to these pie charts, between 1980 and 2010 the share of global steel production from developing countries A) increased from 7 percent to 44 percent. B) increased from 14 percent to 19 percent of the total, if Russia is considered a developing country. C) increased from 5 percent to 23 percent of the total, if Russia is considered a developing country. D) decreased from 68 percent to 21 percent, if Russia is considered a developing country. E) increased from 21 percent to 68 percent of the total, if Russia is considered a developing country.

16 49) Although many factory laborers in MDCs are paid $ per hour, factory laborers in LDCs may be paid less than $ per hour. A) 35; 1 B) 75; 15 C) 35; 10 D) 100; 20 E) 45; 2 50) According to this map of cotton yarn production, after China, India, and Pakistan the world leaders in yarn production include A) Argentina, Russia, and Australia. B) Argentina, Brazil, Peru, Egypt, the United States, Turkey, Russia, and Australia. C) Egypt, France, Germany, Belgium, and Poland. D) Argentina, the United States, Iraq, Iran, and Russia. E) Argentina, the United States, Turkey, Kazakhstan, and Russia. 52) As indicated on this map, the world leaders in blouse production include the United States, China, A) Russia, South Africa, and Australia. B) Pakistan, and India. C) Egypt, Bulgaria, Romania, and Turkey. D) Mexico, South Africa, and Australia. E) Egypt, Spain, and Brazil. 53) As a country's per capita income increases, its per capita carbon dioxide emissions A) also decrease. B) also increase. C) begin to decrease, at first slowly and then rapidly. D) remain about the same. E) increase for a few years, then remain stable, and then begin to decrease. 54) The average temperature of Earth's surface has increased by about A) 2 C since B) 1 C since C) 2 C since D) 3 C since E) 2 C since ) According to this map of cotton weaving distribution, between 1 billion and 3 billion square meters of fabric are produced annually in both A) the United States and Canada. B) the United States and Mexico. C) Russia and Australia. D) China and India. E) the United States and Egypt. 55) According to this graph, carbon dioxide emissions were approximately 300 PPM A) in the year 1900 and 400 PPM in the year B) in the year 1900 and 375 PPM in the year C) in the year 1980 and 375 PPM in the year D) in the year 1900 and 350 PPM in the year E) in the year 1950 and 400 PPM in the year ) Compared to other industries, aluminum manufacturers are more likely to locate near sources of A) low-cost labor. B) low-cost coal-fired power plants. C) low-cost hydroelectricity. D) aluminum oxide. E) fluid capital and transportation infrastructure. 57) The Tennessee Valley Authority brought

17 A) temporary relief in the form of government construction jobs to people in Tennessee in the 1920s and 1930s. B) irrigation systems to much of the rural South in the 1930s. C) electricity to much of the rural South, Midwest, and East Coast in the 1930s. D) electricity to much of the rural South in the 1930s. E) electricity to much of the rural West, South, and Midwest in the 1930s. 58) Despite the risks to the environment, the U.S. Gulf Coast has become an important industrial area because of A) shrimp trawling and seafood processing. B) just-in-time inventory management. C) proximity to markets in Southwest Asia. D) access to oil imports from Mexico and Venezuela. E) access to oil and natural gas fields. 59) In Western Europe, has experienced the most rapid manufacturing growth since the late twentieth century, especially after joining the European Union. A) Denmark B) Germany C) France D) Italy E) Spain 60) Both Europe and the United States have seen interregional shifts of manufacturing, but one difference is A) in the United States, government policies have encouraged relocation. B) in Europe, government policies have encouraged relocation. C) the concentration of industries in Europe and diffusion in the United States. D) the concentration of industries in the United States and diffusion in Europe. E) movement to the west in Europe and to the east in the United States. 61) Twenty-three U.S. states have so-called "right-towork" laws that A) are more numerous and anti-union in northern states than in southern states. B) send a powerful signal to employers that workers have the right to join a labor union, whether or not this unionization might cause inconveniences for management. C) make it much more difficult for employers to limit wages, cut health benefits, and stop unions from forming. D) fight the efforts of factory management to break unions and keep future unions from forming. E) cause a great deal of trouble for labor unions attempting to organize workers and bargain with employers. 62) An analysis of these maps showing changes in U.S. manufacturing from 1950 to 2010 indicates that A) the percentage of manufacturing jobs remained largely unchanged. B) the number of manufacturing jobs increased in nearly all "right-to-work" states. C) the number of manufacturing jobs in Indiana increased when it became a "right-to-work" state. D) the number of manufacturing jobs increased in most "right-to-work" states and decreased in most other states. E) the number of manufacturing jobs increased in California and Colorado, which are not "right-to-work" states. 63) An analysis of these maps showing changes in U.S. manufacturing from 1950 to 2010 indicates that A) the percentage of manufacturing jobs increased in California. B) the percentage of manufacturing jobs decreased only in the Midwest and Northeast. C) the number of manufacturing jobs increased only in "right-to-work" states. D) the number of manufacturing jobs increased markedly in Ohio, Michigan, New York, and Pennsylvania. E) the number of manufacturing jobs decreased markedly in Ohio, Michigan, New York, and Pennsylvania. 64) Mexico's maquiladora plants A) must operate far from the U.S.-Mexico border. B) employ more than five million laborers. C) have an advantage of proximity to Latin American markets. D) have an advantage of proximity to U.S. markets. E) have grown in number as factories have been closed in China.

18 65) Mexico's maquiladora plants A) are distributed evenly across central Mexico. B) rely on high tariffs that suppress U.S. sales. C) are using obsolete production processes compared with most U.S. assembly plants. D) may be taking advantage of lax environmental enforcement. E) cannot find enough laborers to manufacture products in northern Mexico. 66) Maintaining control over all phases of a highly complex production process, as opposed to outsourcing, is known as A) vertical integration. B) the new international division of labor. C) convergence. D) right-to-work. E) outsourcing. 67) The new international division of labor reflects the growing importance of A) outsourcing. B) vertical integration. C) access to raw materials. D) new infrastructure. E) just-in-time inventory management. 68) This chart regarding U.S.-made clothing indicates that the percentage of U.S.-made blouses and skirts being sold A) decreased from about 38 percent in 2000 to about 3 percent in B) decreased from about 25 percent in 2000 to about 5 percent in C) decreased from about 25 percent in 2000 to about 3 percent in D) decreased from about 30 percent in 2000 to about 1 percent in E) decreased from about 32 percent in 2000 to about 3 percent in ) The chart on manufacturing value as a percentage of GDP indicates that the share of manufacturing in developed countries A) began to be surpassed by manufacturing in developing countries in the mid-1990s. B) was less than manufacturing in developing countries in the mid-1970s. C) was greater than manufacturing in developing countries in the late 1980s. D) was roughly equal to manufacturing in developing countries in the early 1990s. E) was roughly equal to manufacturing in developing countries in the early 1980s.

19 1. B 2. D 3. E 4. E 5. E 6. D 7. A 8. C 9. C 10. E 11. E 12. E 13. E 14. E 15. E 16. B 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. A 21. A 22. A 23. A 24. A 25. C 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. C 30. C 31. C 32. C 33. A 34. A Chapter 11 Key 35. A 36. A 37. A 38. A 39. B 40. C 41. A 42. C 43. A 44. C 45. C 46. E 47. E 48. E 49. A 50. E 51. E 52. E 53. B 54. B 55. B 56. C 57. D 58. E 59. E 60. B 61. E 62. E 63. E 64. D 65. D 66. A 67. A 68. E 69. E

20 Review Questions 1. Explain Economic Geography 2. Identify where the largest number of LDCs would be found 3. Give an example of each of the 5 economic sectors 4. Identify the Institutions for Wealth Creation 5. Explain what the institutions incentivize 6. Identify the Barriers to Economic Development 7. Explain and give an example of each barrier 8. Explain the difference between GDP and GDP per Capita 9. Identify two criticisms of GDP per Capita 10. Explain the Human Development Index and be sure to identify the 3 variables used to calculate it 11. Identify two criticisms of the HDI 12. Explain the Gender Inequality Index and identify the 3 variables used to calculate it 13. Explain Ecofeminism 14. Define Income Inequality and identify the mathematical method used to measure it 15. Explain the correlation of education and literacy to development and per capita income 16. Explain why data may not always be accurate in LDCs 17. Explain the purpose of a location theory 18. Define Infrastructure and explain what is provides 19. Identify the 5 basic ideas that firms (businesses) must keep in mind when determining location 20. Identify the 3 major considerations made when locating for labor 21. Identify sources of migration for both Europe and America 22. Explain why trucking is often times the preferred method of transportation 23. Explain Weber s Least Cost Theory and Identify the three basic concepts to focus upon 24. Explain Agglomeration 25. Describe Hotelling s Location Model 26. Describe Losch s Location Model 27. Describe Christaller s Central Place Theory 28. Explain Industrialization 29. Identify where and when the industrial revolution began and explain the diffusion pattern 30. Explain what was necessary for the industrial revolution to diffuse 31. Define a fossil fuel and identify 3 examples 32. Identify the primary fuel used prior to the fossil fuels 33. Identify the nation with the highest per capita consumption of fossil fuels 34. Identify the four major oil producing zones 35. Explain fracking and identify the two fuels it can retrieve 36. Identify the two concerns over fracking 37. Identify two concerns of renewable energies 38. Identify the two European countries that rely heavily on Nuclear energy 39. Explain the purpose of a modernization model 40. Explain Rostow s Model and identify the 5 stages 41. Explain each stage of Rostow s Model 42. Explain dependency theory 43. Explain dollarization and identify three countries that use the dollar 44. Identify the criticisms of dependency theory 45. Provide an example showing how the international division of labor is used in the production of a good. 46. Explain how women fit into the new international division of labor 47. Explain the impact of the new international division of labor on the core countries 48. Define deindustrialization and identify a cause 49. Explain just in time delivery and how it may relate to time-space compression and technology 50. Explain the purpose of trade 51. Define comparative advantage and how it relates to trade 52. Identify who benefits from trade and who is hurt by trade 53. Identify and define two barriers of trade

21 54. Define outsourcing 55. Define and explain the purpose of the WTO and NAFTA 56. Define a Maquiladora and give an example 57. Identify the new global areas of industrialization 58. Identify the Asian Tigers 59. Define a Special Economic Zone and identify where they are located 60. Identify the benefit of China being the largest producer of cotton 61. Define a multinational corporation and give two examples 62. Identify two high-tech corridors 63. Identify the 7 key financial areas 64. Define a world city and give two examples 65. Define an Export Processing Zone 66. Define Soil Erosion 67. Explain the cost of Big Box Stores 68. Explain how retail has changed since the 1950 s 69. Define Global Warming 70. Define the Ozone Layer and explain the concern that surrounds it 71. Define Acid Rain and explain what it can cause 72. Define sustainable development and give the 4 potential solutions 73. Define an island of development 74. Define an NGO