1- Below is a list of cell cycle phases matched with specific processes. Choose the correct pairing:
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1 Name: NetID: Exam 4 - Version 2 November 13, 2018 Dr. A. Pimentel Instructions: 1- Select the BEST answer for each question 2- Use pencil to mark your responses in the answer sheet. 3- You can mark your booklet if you want but only the answers sheet will be graded. 4- Have your Cat Card ready when you hand the exam back to us. Mitosis 1- Below is a list of cell cycle phases matched with specific processes. Choose the correct pairing: A. M phase; the replication of DNA B. G1 phase; cell division C. S phase; cell growth D. G2 phase; preparation of materials before mitosis occurs E. Interphase; cell division 2- Also known as the microtubule organizing center, which structure is accountable for producing the spindle fibers used during the M phase of the cell cycle? A. Kinetochore B. Centromere C. Centrosome D. Chromatid E. Nucleolus
2 3- In some organisms, cytokinesis begins at the cleavage furrow site where a ring of microfilaments contract inside of the cell membrane. This description of cytokinesis does NOT occur in which organism? A. Clams B. Monkeys C. Sunflowers D. Humans E. Birds 4- Many organisms, like fungi, can undergo the cell cycle multiple times without performing cytokinesis. The end result for these organisms will be: A. Multinucleated cells B. Cells with no nucleus C. Mononucleated cells D. Cells arrested in G0 phase E. Cells undergoing uncontrollable cell division 5- If a cell s DNA is damaged before replication in the cell cycle, what is the earliest checkpoint that will keep this cell from being divided? A. G0 B. G1 C. G2 D. M E. None of the above 6- Which step of mitosis if the image to the right showing? A. Prophase B. Prometaphase C. Metaphase D. Anaphase E. Telophase
3 7- At what phase in the cell cycle would the cyclin subunit of mitosis promoting factor (MPF) be at the highest concentration? A. G0 B. G1 C. S D. G2 E. M 8- What would be the consequence If a cell that is going through mitosis is unable to connect the microtubules of the mitotic spindle to the kinetochore of two sister chromatids. A. The cell will not undergo cytokinesis B. The cell will not cross the M checkpoint C. The cell will not cross the G2 checkpoint D. The cell will not cross the G1 checkpoint E. The cell will not condense its chromosomes
4 9- Select the graph that best describes cyclin and CDK expression levels throughout the cell cycle. Legend: The X axis shows time progression through the cell cycle, the Y axis shows the relative concentration of cyclin and cyclin dependent kinase, solid lines show cyclin, dashed lines show cyclin dependent kinase. 10- A plant cell just completed telophase but it has a mutation in the myosin proteins. Select the most likely consequence of this mutation in this animal cell. A. The cellulose vesicles will not be formed B. The cell plate will not be formed C. The cell will not enter mitosis D. The cell cleavage will not occur E. Microtubules will not be formed
5 11- An MCB student is working on a project on the cell cycle. She notices that the cell is not performing normal functions related to the tissue that it belongs to, and that it has 25% more DNA than it normally does have in G1. Which stage in the cell cycle is the cell currently in? A. G0 phase B. Early G1 phase C. S phase D. G2 Phase E. M phase 12- A cell experiences a mutation that results in the misshapening of the kinetochores, which prevents them to attach to the microtubules. What is the most likely result of this mutation? A. This cell will replicate over and over with no regards to checkpoints B. This cell will be arrested in G1. C. The homologous chromosomes will not align in the center of the cell D. This cell will be arrested in anaphase. E. This cell will be arrested in telophase. 13- A student is looking at cells and notices that the DNA has condensed into chromosomes, spindle fibers are starting to form and the nuclear membrane is starting to dissolve. The cell must be in and specifically during. A. M phase; prophase B. M phase; prometaphase C. M phase; Metaphase D. S Phase Anaphase 14- Which of the following statements about mitosis is NOT correct? A. Mitosis results in two genetically identical daughter cells. B. DNA is duplicated in prophase. C. During metaphase, chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell. D. In anaphase, sister chromatids move towards opposite poles of the cell. E. Cytokinesis involves the division of cytoplasm.
6 Meiosis 15- Select the statement that correctly explains what could have caused the abnormal karyotype shown above. Note: the organism of this karyotype is 2n. A. Problems with the crossing over event of prophase I B. Problems with the crossing over event of prophase II C. Problems with the separation of the homologous chromosomes during anaphase I D. Problems with the separation of the homologous chromosomes during anaphase II E. Problems with the separation of the sister chromatids during anaphase I 16- Which of the following events do not contribute to increasing the genetic diversity of an organism? A. Crossing over B. Fertilization of the egg by the sperm C. Random assortment of the homologous chromosomes D. Separation of sister chromatids E. Replication of the DNA material
7 17- What is the difference between mitosis and meiosis? A. Mitosis results in two genetically identical somatic cells, while meiosis results in four genetically different germ cells. B. Mitosis results in two genetically identical germ cells, while meiosis results in four genetically different somatic cells. C. Mitosis involves the division of germ cells and meiosis involves the division of somatic cells D. Mitosis involves the division of germ cells and meiosis involves the division of somatic cells E. Mitosis involves the division of somatic cells and meiosis involves the division of somatic cells. 18- At the beginning of Meiosis II what will you find? A. Two diploid daughter cells B. Two haploid daughter cells C. A diploid mother cells D. A haploid mother cell E. Each chromosome in the diploid 2n parent cell is replicated 19- are the units of heredity that encodes for information and are made up of. A. Chromosomes, DNA B. Genes, RNA C. Somatic Cells, RNA D. Genes, DNA E. Chromosomes, RNA 20- The phase of meiosis in which two pairs of homologous chromosomes are held tightly together to facilitate exchange of genes between non-sister chromatids is: A. Interphase I B. Prophase II C. Prophase I D. Metaphase I E. Telophase I
8 21- Which of the following statements is NOT true of meiosis? A. Produces 4 haploid daughter cells B. Undergoes 2 rounds of DNA replication and 2 rounds of division C. Only occurs in germline cells D. Allows for increased genetic diversity E. Produces daughter cells that are genetically unique from the parent 22- Which of the following will be created by meiosis? A. Bacteria B. Blood cells C. Sperm cells D. Liver cells E. Muscle Cells 23- Which of the following terms is matched with the incorrect ploidy? A. Haploid = n B. Zygote = 2n C. Gametes = n D. Diploid = 2n E. Somatic cells = n 24- Which of the following statements about meiosis in humans is TRUE? A. Sister chromatids separate in anaphase I B. Meiosis occurs in all cells of the human body C. After meiosis II, the daughter cells are diploid D. Homologous chromosomes separate in anaphase I E. Meiosis gives rise to genetically identical daughter cells. 25- Which of the following statements about crossing over is FALSE? A. Crossing over occurs in prophase I B. Crossing over increases the genetic diversity of germ cells C. Crossing over occurs during mitosis D. Genes are exchanged between homologous chromosomes during crossing over E. Genetic recombination occurs during crossing over
9 26- The chromosomes shown on the right are found in of meiosis. A. Prophase I B. Prophase II C. Metaphase I D. Metaphase II E. Anaphase I 27- Hedgehogs have 90 chromosomes in their diploid cells. If a diploid cell enters meiosis, how many chromosomes and how many chromatids will be present in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis I? A. 45 chromosomes and 45 chromatids B. 45 chromosomes and 90 chromatids C. 90 chromosomes and 90 chromatids D. 90 chromosomes and 45 chromatids E. 90 chromosomes and 180 chromatids Cell to Cell Interactions 28- The cardiac muscle (AKA the heart) must beat 60 to 100 beats per minute (100,000 times a day or 35 millions of times a year!), which causes a large deal of mechanical stress in this organ. Arrhythmogenic right ventricular cardiomyopathy is a genetic disease that disrupts the desmosomes of the cardiac muscles. Which of the following will be most likely to be the consequence of this disease in a young person? 3 A. Water will leak between the cells. B. Cells won t be able to communicate with each other. C. Cells will not be able to produce hormones D. Cells will not remain attached to each other E. Cells will not interact with the hormones.
10 29- During the early development of most multicellular organisms, cells need to exchange information in order to coordinate proper development. Select the structure that is critical in these developmental decisions. A. Desmosomes B. Tight junctions C. Channel proteins D. Fibronectin protein E. Gap junctions 30- Which of the following could not cross through the gap junctions between cells? A. Ions B. Small molecules C. DNA D. Nucleotides Cell Signaling 31- Glucagon is a hydrophilic peptide hormone that is produced in the pancreas whose target cells are in the liver. When the liver cells receive the signal, glycogen is converted into glucose. Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. The receptor for glucagon is embedded in the plasma membrane of the pancreas cell. B. The receptor for glucagon is present in the cytoplasm. C. The receptor for glucagon is embedded in the plasma membrane of the liver cell D. The binding of glucagon to its receptor will create a signal transduction inside the cell E. C and D 32- Where will the receptors for hydrophilic hormones be synthesized in the cell? A. In the cytoplasm B. In the rough ER C. In the smooth ER D. In the nucleus E. In the Golgi Apparatus
11 33- Which of the following statements is correct about what happens when the activated receptor binds the G protein coupled complex. A. The G-couple protein complex is activated by the hydrolysis of GTP B. The G-couple protein complex is activated by the phosphorylation of GDP C. The G-couple protein complex is activated by the substitution of GDP for GTP D. The G-couple protein complex is activated by the substitution of GTP for GDP 34- The G protein-coupled receptor signaling and the Tyrosine kinase signaling pathways are examples of A. Signal transduction B. Channel signaling C. Hydrophobic signaling D. Dephosphorylation signaling E. Contact-dependent signaling 35- Select the answers that correctly predict the immediate consequence of a mutation that permanently inactivates the cytoplasmic signaling protein in the tyrosine receptor kinase pathway. A. The receptor will not dimerized B. The receptor will not interact with the signal C. The Ras protein (a G-protein) will not be activated D. A and B are correct E. A and C are correct Cytoskeleton 36- A cell has developed a mutation in which the interactions between actin filaments and myosin are disrupted. Which of the following statements are true? A. Dynein will not be able to take the vesicle to its target. B. Kinesin will not be able to take the vesicle to its target. C. The cell will not be able to divide. D. Exocytosis will not occur. E. All of the above are correct
12 37- What does the cytoskeleton NOT contain? A. Intermediate Filaments B. Microfilaments C. Actin Filaments D. Microtubules E. All of the above are found in cytoskeleton 38- Which of the following statements correctly describes the effect of a mutation that makes the head region of kinesin useless? A. It will not read the receptors embedded in the vesicle membrane. B. It will take the vesicles to the wrong destination C. It will not be able to transport the vesicles. D. It will take the vesicles back to the nuclear membrane. E. It will transport vesicles to the trans side of the Golgi apparatus Bonus 39-Which of the following is correct about the microtubules regarding mitosis and meiosis A. The plus end of the microtubules connect to the kinetochores by dynamic instability B. The minus end of the microtubules connect to the kinetochores by dynamic instability C. The plus end of the microtubules connect to the kinetochores by depolymerization only D. The minus of the microtubules connect to the kinetochores by depolymerization only E. The plus end of the microtubules connect to the kinetochores by polymerization only
13 40- Assertion Reason Tumor suppressor genes keep the cells in a particular checkpoint if the proper conditions are not fulfilled. Because Oncogenes promote the movement of cells through the cell cycle. A. Assertion is true; Reason is true; Reason is the correct explanation B. Assertion is true; Reason true; Reason is NOT the correct explanation C. Assertion is true; Reason is false D. Assertion is false; Reason is true E. Assertion is false; Reason is false Fact: The laboratory of Anthony Atala at Wake Forest University has been able to create a functional bladder using a 3D printer similar to an Inkjet printer. These bioprinted bladders have been surgically implanted in patients and by all accounts they are working perfectly similar to a normal human bladder. The bladder function is to collect and contain the urine. 41- Assertion Reason Mutations in the gene that encodes for gap junctions will cause leakage from the bladder. Because Cells in the bioprinted bladders contain a large concentration of tight junctions. A. Assertion is true; Reason is true; Reason is the correct explanation B. Assertion is true; Reason true; Reason is NOT the correct explanation C. Assertion is true; Reason is false D. Assertion is false; Reason is true E. Assertion is false; Reason is false
14 42- Assertion Reason The protein components of the extracellular matrix have to go through the endomembrane system. Because The endomembrane system helps with cell to cell communication and provides structural support for the cell. A. Assertion is true; Reason is true; Reason is the correct explanation B. Assertion is true; Reason true; Reason is NOT the correct explanation C. Assertion is true; Reason is false D. Assertion is false; Reason is true E. Assertion is false; Reason is false
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