COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP) Date : Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 258

Transcription

1 CLASS-XII/XIII PART TEST-5 (PT-5) TARGET : IIT- JEE 011 Date : Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 58 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose. INSTRUCTIONS A. General : 1. This Question Paper contains 78 questions. PAPER - 1 CODE 0 COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP). The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet. 3. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 4. Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. 6. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators. 8. Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet. B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS : 9. The ORS has CODE printed on its lower and upper Parts. 10. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the Codes do not match, ask for a change of the Booklet. 11. Write your Roll No., Name and Name of centre and sign with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write these anywhere else. 1. Darken the appropriate bubbles below your registration number with HB Pencil. 13. Fill the test cities code in ORS Sheet and for details of cities code see last page this test paper booklet. C. Question paper format and Marking scheme : 14. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics & Physics). Each part consists of five Sections. DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR 15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one ( 1) mark will be awarded. 16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer for this this section. 17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one ( 1) mark will be awarded. 18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one ( 1) mark will be awarded. 19. For each question in Section V, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer for this this section.

2 PART-I Atomic masses : [H = 1, D =, Li = 7, C = 1, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 3, Mg = 4, Al = 7, Si = 8, P = 31, S = 3, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 5, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 17, Ba = 137, Hg = 00, Pb = 07] SECTION - I Straight Objective Type This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. In the reaction sequence, CrO Cl NaOH A dil H 4 SO B NaOH C AgNO 3 D (A) A = Na CrO 4 ; B = Na Cr O 7 ; C = Na CrO 4 ; D = Ag CrO 4 (B) A = Na CrO 4 ; B = Na Cr O 7 ; C = Na Cr O 7 ; D = Ag Cr O 7 (C) A = Na Cr O 7 ; B = Na CrO 4 ; C = Na Cr O 7 ; D = Ag Cr O 7 (D) A = C = Na CrO 4 ; B = Na Cr O 7 ; D = Ag Cr O 7. When 100 ml of 0.1 M NaCN solution is titrated with 0.1 M HCl solution the variation of ph of solution with volume of HCl added will be : (A) (B) (C) (D) 3. If at 98 K, the solubility of AgCl in 0.05 M BaCl (completely dissociated) is found to be very nearly 10 9 M and E 0 Ag / Ag 0.80V. Then the value of E Cl / AgCl / Ag at the same temperature will be (A) 1.39 V (B) V (C) V (D) 0.1 V 0 P1R160111C0-1

3 4. An aqueous solution contains Ba +, Sr + & Ca + all the three ions. To this solution if a solution of K CrO 4 containing some acetic acid is added then what will happen? (A) yellow precipitate of all the three chromates will be formed (B) only BaCrO 4 will be precipitated (C) only CaCrO 4 will be precipitated (D) BaCrO 4 & SrCrO 4 both will be precipitated. 5. A cell reaction ; Zn + Fe 3+ Fe + + Zn + works at 5ºC with the cell emf 1. volt and at 45ºC with the cell emf volt. Assuming Sº to be constant in this temperature range, calculate Sº. (A) 5.5 kj/k (B) 0.5 kj/k (C) 5 kj/k (D) 5 kj/k 6. Aqueous solution of Na SO 4 containing a small amount of Phenolpthlein (HPh) is electrolysed using Ptelectrodes. The color of the solution after some time will - (A) remain colorless (B) change from pink to colorless (C) change from colorless to pink (D) remain pink 7. Compound (X) on treatment with HI gives (Y). (Y) on treatment with ethanolic KOH gives (Z) (an isomer of X). Ozonolysis of (Z) (with H O workup) gives a two-carbon carboxylic acid and four carbon ketone. Hence, (X) is: (A) -methyl--pentene (B) 4-methyl-1-pentene (C), 3-dimethyl--butene (D) 3-methyl-1-pentene P1R160111C0 -

4 8. X Mg Y ( i) Dry CO ether (ii) H Z hot KMnO P 4 The two isomeric compounds which will give the same tricarboxylic acid after the above sequence of reactions, are : (A) I and II (B) III and IV (C) I and IV (D) II and III SECTION - II Multiple Correct Answers Type This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. 9. Which of the following is/are correct for potassium ferrocyanide? (A) It gives a brown precipitate with Cu + ions. (B) It gives a white precipitate of mixed salt with Ca + ions. (C) It in excess gives a bluish white precipitate with Zn +. (D) It develops a deep red colouration with Fe 3+. P1R160111C0-3

5 10. Which of the following reagents can be used to distinguish between SO and CO? (A) Lime water. (B) Excess silver nitrate solution followed by mild heating of solution. (C) Potassium iodate and starch. (D) Acidified potassium dichromate solution. 11. In which of the following solutions, the solubility of AgCN will be more than that in pure water : Given K sp (AgCN) = , K a (HCN) = (A) 0.01 M Ag NO 3 solution (B) excess concentration NaCN solution (C) 0. M NH 3 solution (D) A buffer solution of ph = 5 1. Which of the following reagent(s) is/are correct for preparation of but--enoic acid from but--en-1-ol. (A) KMnO 4 / H + (B) Cu / 300ºC (C) (i) Br / CCl 4, (ii) KMnO 4 / H +, (iii) Zn dust (D) (i) MnO, (ii) Ammonical AgNO 3 SECTION - III Comprehension Type This section contains paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 13 to 15 Redox reactions play pivotal in biology and chemistry. The values of standard redox potential (Eº) decide the way a reaction can proceed. Given below are a set of half-cell reactions in acidic medium along with their Eº values. Use this data to obtain correct explanation of question I I ; Eº = 0.54 V Cl Cl ; Eº = 1.36 V Mn 3+ Mn + ; Eº = 1.5V Fe 3+ Fe + ; Eº = 0.77 V O H O ; Eº = 1.3V P1R160111C0-4

6 13. Identify the correct statement : (A) Fe 3+ is not reduced by iodide ions (C) Cl is not reduced by iodide ions (B) Mn +, is oxidised by chlorine (D) Water is oxidised by chlorine 14. Identify the incorrect statement : (A) Mn + is stable in acidic solution containing O. (B) Fe 3+ is stable in acidic solution. (C) Fe 3+ is a stronger oxidising agent than Mn 3+ in acidic solution. (D) Fe + is unstable in acidic solution containing O. 15. Which of the following electrochemical cells is unfeasible? (A) Pt Cl Cl Fe +, Fe 3+ (B) Mn +, Mn 3+ Cl Cl Pt (C) Pt Cl Cl I I Pt (D) All of above Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 to Reagent P is : (A) Na/NH 3 () (B) H, Pd BaSO 4 (quinoline) (C) H /Ni (D) NaBH 4 P1R160111C0-5

7 17. The structure of the product Q is : Me (A) O O Me Me HO (B) Me Me OH Me Me OH (C) Me Me OH (D) Me 18. The struture of R is : (A) (B) (C) (D) P1R160111C0-6

8 SECTION - IV True & False Type This Section Contains 4 questions. Each question is either true (T) or false (F). 19. ph of the solution increases when 1M aqueous solution CuSO 4 is electrolysed using platinum electrodes. 0. Equivalent conductance of a weak electrolyte solution increases with decreases in concentration of solution. 1. CH =CH Br on addition of HBr in presence of peroxide gives CH CH. Br Br. The order of increasing rate of nitration is : Ph NO < Ph Cl < PhH < C 6 D 6 < PhMe P1R160111C0-7

9 SECTION - V Integer Answer Type This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below the respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened. 3. The conductivity of an aqueous solution of a weak monoprotic acid is ohm 1 cm 1 at a concentration, 0. M. If at this concentration the degree of dissociation is 0.0, calculate the value of 0 (ohm 1 cm /eqt). 4. If 560 ml of H gas at STP is fed into and is consumed by the H O fuel cell in 10 minutes, then what is the current output of the fuel cell? (Give your answer in nearest integer). 5. The active ingredient in aspirin is acetyl salicylic acid, HC 9 H 7 O 4 + H O H 3 O + + C 9 H 7 O 4, K a = What is the ph of the solution obtained by dissolving two aspirin tablets in 50mL of water? Assume that each tablet contains 0.36 g of acetyl salicylic acid. D 6. Cl / Fe Products. Number of possible products are? P1R160111C0-8

10 PART- II SECTION - I Straight Objective Type This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. z i 7. If arg =, then which of the following options gives the correct locus of z? z i 6 (A) (B) (C) (D) 8. lim x x 0 x 0 e e t t dt dt is equal to (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) e (D) e P1R160111C0-9

11 9. A non-zero vector a is parallel to the line of intersection of plane P 1 determined by î ĵ and î ĵ and plane P determined by vector î ĵ and 3î kˆ, then angle between a and vector î ĵ kˆ is (A) /4 (B) / (C) /3 (D) 30. If f (x)dx g(x) and f 1 (x) is differentiable, then f 1 (x) dx is equal to (A) g 1 (x) + C (C) xf 1 (x) g 1 (x) + C (B) x f 1 (x) g(f 1 (x)) + C (D) f 1 (x) + C 31. If the planes x = cy + bz, y = az + cx and z = bx + ay pass through a given line, then the value of a + b + c + abc is (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) (D) 8 3. If is an imaginary fifth root of unity, then log = (A) 1 (B) (C) (D) 1 P1R160111C0-10

12 / 33. The value of / e dx is equal to 1 sin x (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) / (D) / 34. The point of intersection of arg (z i) = and arg (z + e i ) = 4 is (A) ( e) i (B) ei (C) ( + e) i (D) none of these SECTION - II Multiple Correct Answer Type This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. 35. If the vertices of an equilateral triangle are situated at 0, z 1, z ; then which of the following are true (where 0 is the origin) (A) z 1 = z (B) z 1 z = z 1 (C) z 1 + z = z 1 + z (D) principle arg (z 1 ) principle arg (z ) = 3 P1R160111C0-11

13 36. Which of the following integrals is(are) reduced to zero? / (A) 0 n (cot x) dx (B) 0 sin 3 x dx e (C) 1 e x( n dx 1/ 3 x) (D) 1 cos x 0 dx 37. If the value of 3p ) 10 q q ( sin icos is a + ib, then 1 q p (A) a = 48 (B) b = 48 (C) a + b = 0 (D) a b = 0 p sec x If 010 sin x P(x) dx = 010 (sin x) + C, then (A) P 4 1 (B) P 3 3 (C) P 1 (D) P P 8 4 SECTION - III Comprehension Type This section contains paragraphs. Based open each paragraph, there are 3 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. P1R160111C0-1

14 Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41 Integrals of the form the reduction formula. ax p m (x) bx c ax p m (x) bx c dx, where p m (x) is a polynomial of degree m, are calculated by dx dx = p m 1 (x) ax bx c + ax bx c where p m 1 (x) is a polynomial of degree m 1 and is some real constant number. x x 1 e.g. = x x 3 dx then applying the above formula, we can write x x Now, x x 3 3 x 1 x dx = (Ax + Bx + c) x x + dx x x differentiating both sides, we get x 1 x = (Ax + Bx + c). (x 1) x x + (Ax + B) x + x x x x 3 x 1 = (Ax + Bx + c) (x + 1) + (Ax + B) (x + x + ) + On comparing coefficeints of like powers of x we obtain the values of A, B, C and. x If 3 6x 11x 6 dx = (Ax + Bx + C) x 4x 3 x 4x 3 + dx x 4x, then Value of A is (A) 3 1 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 1/3 40. Value of C is 14 (A) 37 (B) 3 14 (C) 3 (D) 37 P1R160111C0-13

15 41. Value of is 37 (A) 66 (B) 66 (C) 3 37 (D) 3 Paragraph for Question Nos. 4 to 44 Let three points A, B, C with affixes z 1, z, z 3 respectively lie on unit circle z = 1. AD is perpendicular to BC and AD is produced to a point E on the circle z = 1. Then 4. Orthocentre of ABC is (A) z 1 + z + z 3 (B) z 1 z + z z 3 + z 3 z 1 3 (C) z 1 + z + z (D) none of these 43. Affix of the point E is (A) zz z 3 1 (B) zz z 1 3 z1z (C) z 3 (D) none of these az b 44. If a complex number t is defined by t =, then the locus of t is a circle for all the values of c given by z c (A) c [1, ) (B) c [ 1, 1] (C) c = 1 (D) c (3, ) P1R160111C0-14

16 SECTION - IV True & False Type This Section Contains 4 questions. Each statement is either true (T) or false (F). 45. If z satisfies the equation z 3 3z 18 iz + 7i = 0, where i = 1, then z = 3. 5x 7x (x 1 x ) 8 6 dx = x 7 7 x x 1 + c, where c is an arbitrary constant. n 47. sin x sin x dx 4n If the complex numbers z 1, z, z 3 represent the vertices of an equilateral triangle such that z 1 = z = z 3 = 1, then z 1 + z + z 3 = 0. P1R160111C0-15

17 SECTION - V Integer Answer Type This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below the respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened. 49. If z 1, z, z 3, z 4, z 5, z 6 are the roots of the equation z 6 + z 5 + z 4 + z 3 + z + z + 1 = 0, then find the value of 6 i1 5 i 6 i1 14 i z z z. 6 i1 i 50. Find the distance of the point P (3, 8, ) from the line 3x + y z + 15 = 0. x 1 = y 3 4 = z 3 measured parallel to the plane cos 4x If cot x tan x dx = A cos 4x + B, then find the value of 8A. 5. If lim n 1/ n 1 n n n n = e then find the value of. P1R160111C0-16

18 PART - III SECTION - I Straight Objective Type This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 53. The two ends of a uniform conductor are joined to a cell of emf and some internal resistance. Starting from the midpoint P of the conductor, we move in the direction of the current and return to P. The potential V at every point on the path is plotted against the distance covered (x). Which of the following best represents the resulting curve? (A) (B) (C) (D) 54. A conducting ring of radius r with a conducting spoke is in pure rolling on a horizontal surface in a region having a uniform magnetic field B as shown, v being the velocity of the centre of the ring. Then the potential difference V 0 V A is (A) Bvr (B) 3Bvr (C) Bvr (D) 3Bvr P1R160111C0-17

19 55. The equivalent resistance between A and B in the arrangement of resistances as shown, is : (A) 4r (B) 3r (C).5r (D) r 56. As shown in the figure, three sided frame is pivoted at P and Q and hangs vertically. Its sides are of same length and have a linear density of 3 kg/m. A current of 10 3 Amp is sent through the frame, which is in a uniform magnetic field of T directed upwards as shown. Then angle through which the frame will be deflected in equilibrium is : (Take g = 10 m/s ) (A) 30 (B) 45 (C) 60 (D) 90 P1R160111C0-18

20 57. A coaxial cable is made up of two conductors. The inner conductor is solid and is of radius R 1 & the outer conductor is hollow of inner radius R and outer radius R 3. The space between the conductors is filled with air. The inner and outer conductors are carrying currents of equal magnitudes and in opposite directions. Then the variation of magnetic field with distance from the axis is best plotted as: (A) (B) (C) (D) 58. An particle is moving along a circle of radius R with a constant angular velocity. Point A lies in the same plane at a distance R from the centre. Point A records magnetic field produced by particle. If the minimum time interval between two successive times at which A records zero magnetic field is t, the angular speed, in terms of t is - (A) t (B) 3t (C) 3t (D) t P1R160111C0-19

21 59. Current in a conductor of uniform material is along +X axis. If cross sectional area of the conductor dv parallel to YZ plane is denoted by A (variable), the magnitude of the potential gradient dx cross sectional area A is given by : versus dv (A) dx A dv (B) dx A dv (C) dx A dv (D) dx A 60. An AC voltage source of variable angular frequency and fixed amplitude V connected in series with a capacitance C = 10 F, inductance L = 10 H and an electric bulb (inductance zero). Now frequency of AC source is decreased from 50 Hz to 10 Hz : (A) Brightness of bulb continuously decreases (B) Brightness of bulb continuously increases (C) Brightness of bulb first increases then decreases (D) Brightness of bulb first decreases then increases SECTION - II Multiple Correct Answers Type This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. 61. In a potentiometer wire experiment the emf of a battery in the primary circuit is 0volt and its internal resistance is 5. There is a resistance box (in series with the battery and the potentiometer wire) whose resistance can be varied from 170 to 0. Resistance of the potentiometer wire is 75. The following potential differences which can not be measured using this potentiometer (A) 5V (B) 6V (C) 7V (D) 8V P1R160111C0-0

22 6. The instantaneous power dissipated in resistor in two different RC circuit is plotted with respect to time as shown in figure. If maximum charge on capacitors C 1 and C are same then choose the correct statement(s) (where E 1 and E are emfs of two DC sources in two different charging circuits and capacitors are fully charged). (A) R 1 > R (B) C 1 > C (C) E 1 > E (D) E R 1 1 E R 63. Two different coils have self-inductance L 1 = 8 mh, L = mh. The current in one coil is increased at a constant rate. The current in the second coil is also increased at the same rate. At a certain instant of time, the power given to the two coils is the same. At that time the current, the induced voltage and the energy stored in the first coil are i 1, V 1 and W 1 respectively. Corresponding values for the second coil at the same instant are i, V and W respectively. Then i 1 (A) 1 i i 4 (B) 1 W 4 i (C) V 4 W (D) V A particle of charge +q and mass m moving under the influence of a uniform electric field E î and a uniform magnetic field B kˆ follows a trajectory from P and Q as shown in figure. The velocities at P and Q are v î and v ĵ. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? 3 (A) E = mv 4 qa 3 mv (B) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is 4 a (C) Rate of work done by the electric field at P is zero. (D) Rate of work done by both fields at Q is zero. a 3 P y v a E v Q B x P1R160111C0-1

23 SECTION - III Comprehension Type This section contains paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Paragraph for Question Nos. 65 to 67 In the circuit given below, both batteries are ideal. Emf E of battery has a fixed value, but emf E 1 of battery 1 can be varied between 1.0 V and 10.0 V. The graph gives the currents through the two batteries as a function of E 1, but are not marked as which plot corresponds to which battery. But for both plots, current is assumed to be negative when the direction of the current through the battery is opposite the direction of that battery's emf. (direction of emf is from negative to positive) 65. The value of emf E is : (A) 8 V (B) 6 V (C) 4 V (D) V 66. The resistance R 1 has value : (A) 10 (B) 0 (C) 30 (D) The resistance R is equal to : (A) 10 (B) 0 (C) 30 (D) 40 P1R160111C0 -

24 Paragraph for Question Nos. 68 to 70 A conducting frame ABCD is kept in a vertical plane. A conducting rod EF of mass m can slide smoothly on it remaining horizontal always. The resistance of the loop is negligible and inductance is constant having value L. The rod is left from rest and allowed to fall under gravity and inductor has no initial current. A uniform magnetic field of magnitude B is present throughout the loop pointing inwards. Determine. 68. Maximum downward displacement of the rod is (you may consider initial position of the rod to be x = 0 and vertically downward as the positive X-axis). mgl (A) B mgl (B) B mgl (C) B 4mgL (D) B 69. Maximum current in the circuit is : (A) mg B (B) mg B (C) 4mg B (D) 8mg B 70. Maximum velocity of the rod is : (A) g ml B (B) g ml B (C) 4g ml B (D) 8g ml B P1R160111C0-3

25 SECTION - IV True & False Type This Section Contains 4 questions. Each question is either true (T) or false (F). 71. A pendulum made of an insulated rigid massless rod of length is attached Z to a small sphere of mass m and charge q. The pendulum is undergoing oscillations of small amplitude having time period T. Now a uniform horizontal magnetic field B out of plane of page is switched on. As a result of this change, the time period of oscillations does not change. 7. Two coaxial conducting rings of different radii are placed in space. The mutual inductance of both the rings is maximum if the rings are also coplanar. 73. A dielectric is inserted between the plates of an isolated fully-charged capacitor. The dielectric completely fills the space between the plates. The magnitude of electrostatic force on either metal plate decreases, in comparison as it was before the insertion of dielectric medium. 74. A wire of uniform cross section and uniform resitivity is connected across an ideal cell. Now the length of the wire is doubled keeping volume of wire constant. The drift velocity of electrons after stretching the wire becomes one fourth of what it was before stretching the wire. P1R160111C0-4

26 SECTION - V Integer Answer Type This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below the respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened. 75. A finite ladder circuit is constructed by connecting several sections of 3 F, 4 F capacitor combinations as shown in the figure. Circuit is terminated by a capacitor of capacitance C such that the equivalent capacitance of the ladder between the points A and B becomes independent of the number of sections in between. Then value of C(in F) is : 76. A steel ball falling vertically strikes a fixed rigid plate A with velocity v 0 and rebounds horizontally as shown. Assuming surface to be same and the effect of gravity on motion of ball to be neglected. If the coeficient of the restitution for the ball is e then find the value of e 1. P1R160111C0-5

27 77. Consider the electric circuit. Adjust the value of R such that the power dissipated in the combined (4 + R) resistor is maximum. Find the power generated in 4 in that case (in watt). 6 18V 3 4 R 78. Figure shows a square loop of resistance 1 of side 1 m being moved towards right at a constant speed of 1 m/s. The front edge enters the 3 m wide magnetic field ( B = 1 T ) at t = 0. Then total heat (in joule) produced in the loop during the interval 0 to 5 s is P1R160111C0-6

28 Name of the Candidate Roll Number I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator Example for Filling Test Cities Code in ORS : If your Test centre is Bhatinda and test code is 06 then fill in ORS : (a) (b) Test Code Test Centre Test Code Test Centre Test Code Test Centre 01 AHMEDABAD 0 AGRA 03 BENGALURU 04 BIKANER 05 BHOPAL 06 BHATINDA 07 BHUBNESHWAR 08 BOKARO 09 CHANDIGARH 10 DHANBAD 11 DEHRADUN 1 GUWAHATI 13 HYEDRABAD 14 INDORE 15 JAIPUR 16 KANPUR 17 KOLKATA 18 KOTA 19 LUCKNOW 0 MUMBAI- Andheri 1 MUMBAI- Thane MUMBAI- Nerul 3 MUMBAI- Dadar 4 MANGLURU 5 MUZAFFARPUR 6 NAGPUR 7 NEW DELHI- East 8 NEW DELHI- North West 9 NEW DELHI- South 30 PATNA 31 RAIPUR 3 RANCHI 33 SRI GANGANAGAR 34 SHAKTI NAGAR 35 UDAIPUR 36 UDUPI 37 VARANASI 38 BHAGALPUR 39 GWALIOR 40 PATHANKOT 41 RAJKOT 4 GORAKHPUR 43 BHILAI (Space for rough work)