COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP) Date : Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 258

Transcription

1 PART TEST-4 (PT-4) TARGET : IIT-JEE 0 CODE 0 CLASS-XII/XIII COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP) Date : Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 58 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose. INSTRUCTIONS PAPER - A. General :. This Question Paper contains 63 questions.. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet. 3. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 4. Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. 6. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators. 8. Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet. B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS : 9. The ORS has CODE printed on its lower and upper Parts. 0. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the Codes do not match, ask for a change of the Booklet.. Write your Roll No., Name and Name of centre and sig with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write these anywhere else.. Darken the appropriate bubbles below your registration number with HB Pencil. 3. Fill the test cities code in ORS Sheet and for details of cities code see last page this test paper booklet. C. Question paper format and Marking scheme : 4. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics & Physics). Each part consists of five Sections. 5. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this this section. 6. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this this section. 7. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this this section. 8. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 3 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this this section. 9. For each question in Section V, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this this section. DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR

2 PART-I Atomic masses : [H =, D =, Li = 7, C =, N = 4, O = 6, F = 9, Na = 3, Mg = 4, Al = 7, Si = 8, P = 3, S = 3, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 5, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 08, I = 7, Ba = 37, Hg = 00, Pb = 07] SECTION - I Straight Objective Type This section contains 0 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.. What volume of 0 4 M Ba(OH) must be added to 300 ml of a 0 4 M HCl solution to get a solution in which the molarity of hydronium (H 3 O + ) ions is 5 0 M? (A) 375 ml (B) 300 ml (C) 5 ml (D) 450 ml. X ml of H gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 sec. The time taken for the effusion of the same volume of the gas specified below under identical conditions is (A) 0 sec. He (B) 0 sec. O (C) 5 sec. CO (D) 55 sec. CO 3. An ideal gas obeying kinetic gas equation can be liquified if. (A) It temperature is more than critical temperature (B) It's pressure is more than critical pressure (C) It's pressure is more than critical pressure but its temperature is less than critical temperature. (D) It can not be liquified at any value of P & T. 4. For a real gas with very large value of molar volume, which of the following equation can most suitably be applied? (A) Z = a V RT m (B) PV m = RT Pb (C) Z = + RT (D) PV m RT = a V m PR050C0-

3 5. A chloride dissolves appreciably in cold water. When placed on a platinum wire in Bunsen flame, no distinctive colour is noticed. The cation of chloride is : (A) Pb + (B) Ba + (C) Mg + (D) Ca + 6. Wilkinson's catalyst [Rh Cl(PPh 3 ) 3 ] react with H to form an octahedral complex in which Rh(Z = 45) has the following electronic configuration in the ligand field,, 0,0 t g, e g Then which of the following is correct about this new complex. (A) Complex is paramagnetic. (B) Its IUPAC name is chloridodihydridotris(triphenylphosphine)rhodium(). (C) The oxidation state of central metal ion in complex is +. (D) Hybridisation of central metal ion is sp 3 d. 7. When cold NaOH reacts with Cl, which of the following is formed? (A) NaClO (B) NaClO (C) NaClO 3 (D) None 8. NaOH / P ; the major product 'P' is : (A) (B) (C) (D) PR050C0-

4 CH 3 MgBr 9. (A) (A) (B) (C) (D) 0. Above compound contains four functional group the rate of reaction with RMg-X will be : (A) I > III > III > IV (B) I > II > III > IV (C) IV > I > II > III (D) I > IV > III > II SECTION - II Multiple Correct Answers Type This section contains 5 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. PR050C0-3

5 . Which of the following statements is/are correct? (A) Ozone reacts with dry KOH forming a deep red coloured compound and liberating oxygen gas at low temperature. (B) KO is better oxidant than K O both in aqueous and acidic medium. (C) KOH is better absorber of CO than NaOH. (D) Quick lime on heating with carbon in an electric furnace forms CaCO gm CaO lime is dissolved in 00 ml water and made a saturated solution. (K w = 0 3 ). The correct statements are (A) Concentration of OH in solution is 0. M (B) Concentration H + ion would be (C) Solution is basic because ph > 6.5. (D) At 5ºC K w = 0 4, so in above problem for K w = 0 3 temperature should be less than 5ºC. 3. Choose correct option(s) (A) If vanderwaal's constants of two gases 'A' and 'B' are a, b and a, b respectively such that a = a but b > b, then gas B possess higher compressibility than that of A under similar conditions. (B) No gas can be liquefied above its critical temperature. (C) Critical temperature of methane is greater than that of ammonia. (D) The intercept of the plot P RT Vs P for any gas at constant temperature is. d M [P pressure, d density of gas, T temp in kelvin, M molar mass of gas]. PR050C0-4

6 4. In the following reaction sequence, product I, J and L are formed. K represents a reagent. Hex-3-ynal I J L (A) The product I is. (B) The structure of compound J is. (C) The structure of product L is. (D) The reagent K is thionyl chloride. 5. CH = CH Br (i)mg/ ether (ii) X (iii)h O 3 Y LiAlH 4 Z (i) HBr (ii) O3 /HO, Zn Final Products Ba CO * 3 + H SO 4 X + H O + BaSO 4. (A) The product Z is. (B) The final products are only. (C) The product Y is. (D) X is CO. SECTION - III True & False Statement Type This Section Contains questions. Each question contains 3 or 4 statements S, S, S 3 or S 4. Each statement is either true (T) or false (F). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) each of which contains whether S, S, S 3 or S 4 are true or false. Exactly one choice contains the correct order of truthness or falseness of S, S, S 3 or S 4 respectively and is the correct choice. PR050C0-5

7 6. S : The heats of hydration of the dipositive alkaline earth metal ions decrease with an increase in their ionic size. S : The low solubility of LiF is due to its high lattice energy whereas low solubility of CsI is due to smaller hydration energy. S 3 : Stability of peroxides and superoxides of alkali metals increases with increase in size of the cation. (A) T T T (B) T F F (C) T T F (D) F T F 7. Select the true/false statements. S : The rate of catalytic hydrogenation of butyne is greater than trans butene. S : The rate of reduction of CH = O is slower than (CH 3 ) C=O by LiAlH 4. S 3 : The aqueous solution of CH 3 MgBr is used for SN reaction with primary alkyl halides. S 4 : is reduced to by using Zn(Hg)/HCl on heating. (A) F F F F (B) T F T F (C) T F F F (D) T F T T SECTION - IV Matrix - Match Type This section contains questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, s and t ; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following : PR050C0-6

8 8. Column I Column II (A) [Cu(NO ) 6 ] 4 (p) Outer orbital complex (B) [Ni(NH 3 ) 6 ] + (q) Inner orbital complex. (C) K [Cr(CN) 4 (NH 3 )NO] (n = ) (r) 'Spin only' magnetic moment =.73 B.M (D) K 4 [Co(NO ) 6 ] (s) Central metal oxidation state + (t) During hybridisation d-orbital electron(s) jump(s) 'n' represents number of unpaired electrons. to higher energy orbital (s). 9. Match the column-i and II. Column-I (Reaction) Column-II (Type of reaction) (A) (p) S N (B) Alc. KOH (q) S N (C) H SO 4 (r) E (D) H O CH5OH/ (s) E (t) Stereospecific PR050C0-7

9 SECTION - V Integer Answer Type This section contains questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below the respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened. 0. How many total number of isomers are formed (including geometrical and optical) by octahedral complex [Rh(en) (NO )Cl] +?. If root mean square speed of CH 4 at 48 K is same as the most probable speed of H at T K, then T is. PR050C0-8

10 PART- II SECTION - I Straight Objective Type This section contains 0 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct For any matrix A of order 3 3, if A (adj A) = 0 5 0, then A is equal to (A) 5 (B) 5 (C) 0 (D) 5 3. If a, b, where c are two unit vectors such that a a b c =, then value of a b c (A) 0 (B) ± (C) 3 (D) 3 is : 5 4. The shortest distance of a point 0, from the curve y = x is (A) 9 (B) 7 5 (C) (D) 5 5. If log x f(x) k x (where 0 < k < ) and x g(x) log x x n n, then common x {x} domain of f(x) and g(x) is (A) 3, 3 (B) 3, 5 (C) 3, 5 (D) 3, 3 PR050C0-9

11 6. The set of all possible values of x for which + x n (x + x ) x is given by (A) ( 0] (B) [0, ] (C) [0, ) (D) R 7. In a regular tetrahedron let be the angle between any edge and a face not containing the edge. If cos = b a where a, b +, a and b are coprime, then the value of 0a + b is (A) 4 (B) (C) 3 (D) 3 8. Number of integral value(s) of for which vectors x î ĵ xkˆ, ( ) î ĵ kˆ and î ĵ kˆ, in the order, form right handed system x R, is (A) 0 (B) (C) 4 (D) 6 9. A new tetrahedron is formed by joining the centriods of the faces of a given tetrahedron. The ratio of the volume of given tetrahedron to that of new tetrahedron is (A) 3 (B) 9 (C) 7 (D) 8 PR050C0-0

12 30. If A is an involutory matrix of order ; B = 0 and C = ABA, then (C) 009 = (A) A A (B) A A (C) A A (D) A A 3. If (u, v) are the co-ordinates of the point of local minimum on the curve x 3 = y (x 4), then uv is equal to. (A) 75 (B) 50 (C) 35 (D) 34 SECTION - II Multiple Correct Answer Type This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. 3. A line passes through a point A with position vector 3î ĵ kˆ and is parallel to the vector î ĵ kˆ. If P is a point on this line such that AP = 5 units, then the position vector of the point P is/are (A) 3î 6ĵ kˆ (B) 3î 4ĵ 9kˆ (C) 7î 4ĵ 9kˆ (D) 7î 6ĵ kˆ PR050C0-

13 33. If the edges of a rectangular parallelopiped are 3,,, then angle between a pair of diagonals may be (A) cos 7 6 (B) cos (C) cos (D) cos g(x) = f(x ) + f( x ) and f(x) < 0 for 0 x, then (A) g(x) decreases in 0, (B) g(x) increases in 0, (C) g(x) decreases in, (D) g(x) increases in, 35. The function y = f(x) is defined as x = t t, y = t + t t, t R. If for x 0, f(x) is intersected by another curve y = 3x, the angle between the two curves at the point of intersection is (A) 7 (B) tan 4 (C) tan 7 4 (D) tan If the matrix A = correct? 0 a a b b b c c c is an orthogonal matrix. Then which of the following option(s) is/are (A) b = ± 6 (B) c = ± 3 (C) a = ± (D) a = ± PR050C0-

14 SECTION - III True & False Statement Type This Section Contains questions. Each questions contains 3 or 4 statements S, S, S 3 or S 4. Each statement is either true (T) or false (F). Each questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) each of which contains whether S, S, S 3 or S 4 are true or false. Exactly one choice contains the correct order of truthness or falseness of S, S, S 3 or S 4 respectively and is the correct choice. 37. Consider the following statements : A,B,P,Q are square matrices of order 3 3. S : If P = Q = and adj B = A then adj(q BP ) = PAQ. S : If A and P are skew symmetric matrices then PAP is symmetric matrix. S 3 : If Q = and adja = B and adj(q A) = k B then k =. State, in order, whether S, S, S 3 are true or false (A) T F T (B) F T F (C) T T F (D) F T T 38. Consider the following statements : S : e is smaller than e. S : Number of solutions of the equation sin x + x = 3 is one. S 3 : If f(x) is increasing with concavity upwards, then concavity of f (x) is also upwards. State, in order, whether S, S, S 3 are true or false (A) F F T (B) F T F (C) T T F (D) T FT SECTION - IV Matrix - Match Type This section contains questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be drakened as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, s and t ; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following : PR050C0-3

15 39. Column I Column II (A) Let A and B are square matrices of order 3 3, (p) which satisfy AB = A and BA = B. If (A B) 5 = k (A B), then k = (B) If A = ab a b 0 0, a 0, b 0 and A n =, n N, (q) 7 ab 0 0 then the least value of n is equal to (C) The distance of the point (, 0, 3) from the plane x y z = 9 (r) 4 measured parallel to the line x = y 3 z 6 = is 6 (D) If A = 3 x of x y is y is orthogonal matrix, then the value (s) 3 (t) 0 PR050C0-4

16 40. Column Column (A) If x + y =, then minimum value of x + y is (p) 3 (B) If a local maximum value of y = a cos x cos 3x occurs (q) 0 3 when x = 6, then the value of 'a' is (C) If f(x) = x sin x, 0 x is increasing in the interval (r) 3 [a, b], then a + b is (D) If equation of the tangent to the curve y = e x/ where it (s) crosses the y-axis is p x + q y =, then p q is (t) PR050C0-5

17 SECTION - V Integer Answer Type This section contains questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below the respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened. x 4. Let f(x) = x, then find the total number of points of inflection on the curve y = f(x). 4. A particle moves along the parabola y = x in the first quadrant in such a way that its x-coordinate (measured in meters) increases at a rate of 0m/sec. If the angle of inclination of the line joining the particle to the origin changes, when x = 3m, at the rate of k rad/sec., then find the value of k. PR050C0-6

18 PART - III SECTION - I Straight Objective Type This section contains 0 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 43. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle of incidence 'i', A = e =, where notations have their usual meaning. If the refractive index of the prism is 3 then the value 'i' is : (A) 60º (B) 45º (C) 30º (D) 90º 44. Charges Q and Q are placed as shown in figure. The potential at a point at a finite distance where electric field is zero, will be : (A) positive (B) negative (C) zero (D) Not defined if the potential at the infinity to be taken as zero 45. A non conducting uniformly charged thin spherical shell having potential of 0 volts at its surface is cut into two equal parts then the electric potential at the edge of the hemisphere in the absence of the other part is : (A) 5 volt (B) 0 volt (C) zero volt (D) between 5 v and 0 v 46. For the given graphs (a) and (b) find the value of electric field at point(m,m) : (A) î ĵ V/m (B) î ĵ V/m (C) î ĵ V/m (D) î ĵ V/m PR050C0-7

19 47. Figure (i) shows an imaginary cube of edge length L. A uniformly charged rod of length L moves towards left at a small but constant speed v. At t = 0, the left end of the rod just touches the centre of the face of the cube opposite to it. Which of the graphs shown in fig.(ii) represents the flux of the electric field through the cube as the rod goes through it? Flux b d a (i) (ii) c (A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d 48. A positively charged body 'A' has been brought near a neutral brass sphere B mounted on a glass stand as shown in the figure. The potential only due to induced charged at the centre of the brass sphere will be : time (A) Zero (C) Positive (B) Negative (D) Infinite 49. A point charge q = C is brought from infinity (slowly so that heat developed in the shell is negligible) and is placed at the centre of a conducting neutral spherical shell of inner radius a = m and outer radius b = m, then work done by external agent is: (A) 0 (B) J (C) J (D) J 50. A body starts from rest at a point, distance R 0 from the centre of the earth of mass M, radius R. The velocity acquired by the body when it reaches the surface of the earth will be (R 0 > R) (A) GM R R 0 (B) GM R (C) (SPACE R 0 FOR ROUGH WORK) GM R R 0 (D) GM R R 0 PR050C0-8

20 5. A spherical hollow cavity is made in a lead sphere of radius R, such that its surface touches the outside surface of the lead sphere and passes through its centre. The mass (uniformly distributed) of the sphere before hollowing was M. A particle of mass m, which lies at a distance d from the centre of the lead sphere on the straight line connecting the centres of the spheres and that of the hollow, if d = R then find the interaction gravitational potential energy of the particle and hollowed sphere : R d m (A) 7GMm R (B) 5GMm R (C) GMm R (D) 7GMm 3 R 5. If internal resistance of a cell is constant. Then the best representation of terminal potential difference of a cell with current drawn from cell will be: (A) (B) (C) (D) SECTION - II Multiple Correct Answers Type This section contains 5 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. PR050C0-9

21 53. A uniform disc of mass m and radius R is rotating freely about a fixed vertical axis passing through its centre with angular velocity. A particle of same mass m and having velocity R towards centre of the disc collides with the disc moving horizontally and sticks to its rim. (A) The angular velocity of the disc will become /3. (B) The angular momentum of the disc about the fixed axis of rotation will remain conserved because force due to particle on the disc is passing through fixed axis of disc (C) Magnitude of change in momentum of the particle is 37 3 m R just after collision (D) The change in momentum of the particle and change in momentum of system is same 54. Two point charges a & b, whose magnitudes are same are positioned at a certain distance from each other with a at origin. Graph is drawn between magnitude of electric field strength at points between a & b and distance x from a. From the graph, it can be decided that : (A) a is positive, b is negative (B) a and b both are positive (C) a and b both are negative (D) a is negative, b is positive 55. The net charge given to a solid insulating sphere: (A) must be distributed uniformly in its volume (B) may be distributed uniformly in its volume (C) must be distributed uniformly on its surface (D) the distribution will depend upon whether other charges are present or not. 56. A negatively charged drop of mass gm is allowed to fall. Due to air resistance force it attains a constant velocity. Then if a uniform electric field is to be applied vertically to make the oil drop ascend up with the same constant speed, which of the following are correct. (g = 0 ms - ) (Assume that the magnitude of resistance force is same in both the cases) (A) The electric field is directed upward (B) The electric field is directed downward (C) Electrostatic force on the oil drop is N (D) Electrostatic force on the oil drop is N PR050C0-0

22 57. Which of the following statements are correct about a planet rotating around the sun in an elliptic orbit. (The gravitation force due to other objects on this planet is to be neglected) : (A) its mechanical energy is constant (B) its angular momentum about the sun is constant (C) its areal velocity about the sun is constant (D) If the mass of planet is doubled for the same orbit then areal velocity will be halved SECTION - III True & False Statement Type This Section Contains questions. Each question contains 3 or 4 statements S, S, S 3 or S 4. Each statement is either true (T) or false (F). Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) each of which contains whether S, S, S 3 or S 4 are true or false. Exactly one choice contains the correct order of truthness or falseness of S, S, S 3 or S 4 respectively and is the correct choice. 58. S : There are two point charges q and q kept at a separation such that q + q is not equal to zero then there exist only one point there at a finite distance from them where there resultant electric field be zero electric field will be zero for the given system except infinity. S : For the given system as shown in the figure net electric force on the dipole due to point charge is parallel to dipole moment but the net torque about the point charge is zero. S 3 : For a planet moving along the shown elliptical. orbit the time taken by it for the right half ABC will be equal to time taken by it for left half CDA. (A) F T F (C) F T T (B) T T F (D) T T T PR050C0 -

23 59. S : For a given resistor current will always be greater for a cell of emf 6v then cell of emf 3v. S : The direction of electric current in a conducting wire will always be from higher potential to lower potential. S 3 : For the shown circuit potentiometer, the potential difference in portion 'AC' will be equal to potential difference across the cell (having internal resistance r) even when null deflection is not obtained. (A) T F T (B) F F F (C) T T F (D) F T T SECTION - IV Matrix - Match Type This section contains questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, s and t ; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following : PR050C0 -

24 60. In each situation of column I, two short electric dipoles having dipole moments p and p of same magnitude (that is p = p ) are placed on the axis symmetrically about the origin in different orientations as shown. In column II, certain inferences are drawn for these two electric dipoles. Then, match the different orientations of dipoles in column I with the corresponding results in column II. Column I Column II (A) (p) The torque on one dipole due to other dipole is zero about its centre of mass (B) (q) The potential energy of one dipole in electric field of the other dipole is negative (C) (r) There is one straight line in x y plane (not at infinity) which is equipotential. (D) (s) Electric field at origin is zero. (t) Electric potential at origin is zero. PR050C0-3

25 6. To create uniform electric field, two infinitely large plates are used having uniform surface charge density as shown in the figure. Particles in column- are projected horizontally from the middle with same kinetic energy. Neglect force acting between the particle and also neglect gravity. Match the column. Column- (A) -particle (B) 3 Na + (C) 6 Li + (D) D + Column- (p) Particles which will move along path () (q) Particles which will move along path () (r) Particles which will strike the negative plate in minimum time (s) Particles which will strike the negative plate in maximum time (t) Particles which will strike the plate with lowest kinetic energy SECTION - V Integer Answer Type This section contains questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below the respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened. 6. A particle is released from height 'R' from the surface of earth where 'R' is radius of the earth. If the acceleration of particle at that height is given by n g. Then find the value of 'n'. 63. Electric field in a region is given by E 4x î 6y ĵ. If the charge enclosed by the cube is n 0 in the cube of side m oriented as shown in the figure. Find the value of 'n'. PR050C0-4

26 Name of the Candidate Roll Number I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator Example for Filling Test Cities Code in ORS : If your Test centre is Bhatinda and test code is 06 then fill in ORS : (a) (b) Test Code Test Centre Test Code Test Centre Test Code Test Centre 0 AHMEDABAD 0 AGRA 03 BENGALURU 04 BIKANER 05 BHOPAL 06 BHATINDA 07 BHUBNESHWAR 08 BOKARO 09 CHANDIGARH 0 DHANBAD DEHRADUN GUWAHATI 3 HYEDRABAD 4 INDORE 5 JAIPUR 6 KANPUR 7 KOLKATA 8 KOTA 9 LUCKNOW 0 MUMBAI- Andheri MUMBAI- Thane MUMBAI- Nerul 3 MUMBAI- Dadar 4 MANGLURU 5 MUZAFFARPUR 6 NAGPUR 7 NEW DELHI- East 8 NEW DELHI- North West 9 NEW DELHI- South 30 PATNA 3 RAIPUR 3 RANCHI 33 SRI GANGANAGAR 34 SHAKTI NAGAR 35 UDAIPUR 36 UDUPI 37 VARANASI 38 BHAGALPUR 39 GWALIOR 40 PATHANKOT 4 RAJKOT 4 GORAKHPUR 43 BHILAI (Space for rough work)