COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP) Date : Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 270

Transcription

1 PART TEST-6 (PT-6) TARGET : IIT-JEE 011 CODE 0 CLASS-XII/XIII COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP) Date : Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 70 Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose. INSTRUCTIONS PAPER - 1 A. General : 1. This Question Paper contains 63 questions.. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet. 3. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 4. Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. 6. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators. 8. Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet. B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS : 9. The ORS has CODE printed on its lower and upper Parts. 10. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the Codes do not match, ask for a change of the Booklet. 11. Write your Roll No., Name and Name of centre and sig with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write these anywhere else. 1. Darken the appropriate bubbles below your registration number with HB Pencil. 13. Fill the test cities code in ORS Sheet and for details of cities code see last page this test paper booklet. C. Question paper format and Marking scheme : DO NOT BREAK THE SEALS WITHOUT BEING INSTRUCTED TO DO SO BY THE INVIGILATOR 14. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics & Physics). Each part consists of Four Sections. 15. For each question in Section I, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one ( 1) mark will be awarded. 16. For each question in Section II, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this this section. 17. For each question in Section III, you will be awarded 3 marks for each row in which you have darkened the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct answer. Thus, each question in this section carries a maximum of 1 marks. There is no negative marking for incorrect answer(s) for this this section. 18. For each question in Section IV, you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one ( 1) mark will be awarded.

2 PART-I Atomic masses : [H = 1, D =, Li = 7, C = 1, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 3, Mg = 4, Al = 7, Si = 8, P = 31, S = 3, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 5, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 17, Ba = 137, Hg = 00, Pb = 07] SECTION - I Straight Objective Type This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 1. A solution of 0. mole KI (degree of dissociation= 100%) in 1000 g water freezes at T 1 0 C and boils at T 3 C. Now to this solution 0.1 mole solid Hg is added and the resulting solution freezes at T 0 C and boils at T 4 C. Which of the following is correct : (A) T 1 = T, T 3 = T 4 (B) T 1 > T, T 3 < T 4 (C) T 1 < T, T 3 > T 4 (D) None. Pb and Sn are extracted from their chief ores by : (A) Carbon reduction and self reduction (C) Electrolysis and self reduction (B) Self reduction and carbon reduction (D) Self reduction and electrolysis 3. Which of the following statement is incorrect : (A) Enthalpy (numerical value) of physisorption is greater than that of chemisorption (B) Physisorption is not very specific but chomisorption is highly specific in nature (C) Chemisorption takes place at relatively higher temperature (D) In physisorption generally multi molecular layers are formed on the adsorbent 4. The relationship between osmotic pressure at 73 K when 10 g glucose,10 g urea and 10 g sucrose are dissolved in 50 ml of water to form separate solutions is : [P 1, P and P 3 are osmotic pressure of glucose, urea and sucrose solution respectively] (A) P 1 > P > P 3 (B) P 3 > P 1 > P (C) P > P 1 > P 3 (D) P > P 3 > P 1 P1R30111C0-1

3 5. Which of the following are incorrect on basis of above ellingham diagram for carbon. (A) Upto 710 C, the reaction of formation of CO is energetically more favourable, but above 710 C the formation of CO is preferred. (B) In principle, carbon can be used to reduce many metal oxide at a sufficiently high temperature. (C) S (C (s) + 1 O (g) CO (g) ) < S (C (s) + O (g) CO (g) ) (D) carbon reduces many oxides at elevated temperature because G v/s temperature line has a negative slope. 6. Phosphine can be prepared by which one of the following method? (A) Red phosphorus is treated with I and water. (B) CaO in water reacts with white phosphours. (C) Phosphonium iodide (PH 4 I) is heated with a solution of KOH (D) (B) and (C) both. 7. For the complete coagulation of 00 ml of As S 3 solution, 10 ml of 1 M NaCl is required. What is the coagulating value of NaCl? (A) 00 (B) 100 (C) 50 (D) 5 P1R30111C0-

4 8. (X) C 6 H 7 N (Aromatic) (X) cannot be : (A) Benzoic acid (C) Benzoic anhydride (B) Benzene carbonyl chloride (D) Benzonitrile 9. products ; one of the product is (A) (B) (C) (D) 10. (X) CH O (excess) conc. NaOH solution CrO ( Y) 3 /H /HO C5H1O 4 The compound (X) is : (A) CH 3 CH=O (B) CH3 C CH3 (C) CH =O (D) CH 3 CH CH=O O P1R30111C0-3

5 SECTION - II Multiple Correct Answers Type This section contains 5 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. 11. For H 3 PO 3 and H 3 PO 4, the correct choice is: (A) Number of P H bond in H 3 PO 3 is one. (B) H 3 PO 3 is dibasic and reducing. (C) H 3 PO 4 is tribasic and reducing. (D) On heating H 3 PO 3 gets disproportionate into H 3 PO 4 and PH Calcium silicate (slag) formed in the slag formation zone in extraction of iron from haematite ore : (A) does not dissolve in molten iron (B) being lighter floats on the molten iron (C) is used in cement industry (D) prevents the re-oxidation of molten iron 13. Which of the following is/are correct for an ideal binary solution of two volatile liquids (eg. benzene & toluene)? (A) its vapor is always richer in the more volatile component (compared to the liquid). (B) the liquid will gradually become richer in the less volatile component if such a mixture is boiled (distilled). (C) the p T (ie. the total pressure) above the solution will be the sum of the vapor pressures of the two pure components. (D) the boiling point of the solution will be less than the boiling points of the two components. P1R30111C0-4

6 14. (X) (Aromatic) The correct statements are : (A) (X) is an aromatic acid. (B) (Z) can be. (C) (Y) on heating with Zn forms symmetrical tribromobenzene. (D) (X) can be obtained by fusion of Benzene-1,3-disulphonic acid with NaOH. 15. The correct order(s) is/are : (A) Ph CH Br > Ph Cl > Ph Br... (SN reaction with NaOH/ ) (B) > >... (Hydrolysis with NaOH) (C) > CH 3 CH COOH > CH 3 COOH... (rate of esterification) (D) HCHO > CH 3 CHO > PhCHO... (Rate of nucleophilic addition reaction) P1R30111C0-5

7 SECTION - III Matrix - Match Type This section contains questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, s and t ; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following : 16. Column I Column II (Products) (A) NaNO + FeSO 4 + H SO 4 (Unbalanced) (p) N O (B) HNO 3 (dil.) + Cu + H O (Unbalanced) (q) NO (C) Pb(NO 3 ) (Unbalanced) (r) O (D) NH 4 NO 3 (Unbalanced) (s) NO (t) Atleast one of product is paramagnetic P1R30111C0-6

8 17. Match the compounds of column(i) with the reaction characteristics of column(ii) Column-I Column-II (A) (p) Reduction with LiAlH 4 (B) (q) Nucleophilic addition (C) (r) Hydrolysis (D) (s) -halogenation (t) phenyl-1,-shift possible by using H +. P1R30111C0-7

9 SECTION - IV Integer Answer Type This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below the respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened. 18. How many oxygen atoms of [SiO 4 ] 4 are shared in three dimensional sheet silicate? 19. How many of the given metals can be obtained by carbon reduction in their extractive metallurgy. Zn, Pb, Na, Sn, Ag, Au, Mg, Al, Fe 0. Henry s law constant for CO in water is Pa at 98K. Calculate mmole of CO dissolved in 16 gm water at.5 atm pressure at 98K.[Take 1 atm = 10 5 N/m ] 1. ( 1) SOCl excess 14 CH N excess Ag O excess H O / NaOH(CaO) excess Product How many C 14 atoms are present in the product. P1R30111C0-8

10 PART- II SECTION - I Straight Objective Type This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.. The greatest integer n such that (4) n divides 011! is (A) 330 (B) 331 (C) 33 (D) Three identical fair dice are rolled once. The probability that the same number will appear on each of them is (A) 6 1 (B) 36 1 (C) (D) 8 4. If two distinct chords of a parabola y = 4ax passing through the point (a, a) are bisected by the line x + y = 1, then the length of the latus rectum can be (A) (B) 7 (C) 4 (D) 5 x y 5. The maximum area of the triangle inscribed in the ellipse + a b = 1 is (A) 3 3 ab 4 (B) 3 3 a 4 (C) 3 3 b 4 (D) 3 3 ab P1R30111C0-9

11 x y 6. The hyperbola a b latus rectum is 5 (A) 9 4 = 1 has its conjugate axis 5 and passes through the point (, 1). The length of a 5 (B) 9 8 (C) 9 (D) Let f(x) = x + sinx, area bounded by f 1 (x), x-axis and x = 0, x = is (A) + sq.unit (B) sq.unit (C) + sq.unit (D) 1 sq.unit dy 8. If = xy + x + 3y + 6, then y( 1) e y ( 3) = dx (A) e 1 (B) e + 1 (C) (e 1) (D) (e 1) 9. If dy + y = dx x e e, then ey(1) y(0) = (A) e 1 (B) e e + 1 (C) e e e (D) e e + e P1R30111C0-10

12 30. With usual notations. In triangle ABC a b c is always (A) 6 3 (B) 4 3 (C) 3 3 (D) It twice the square of the diameter of a circle is equal to the sum of the squares of the sides of the inscribed triangle ABC then sin A + sin B + sin C is equal to (A) (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 1 SECTION - II Multiple Correct Answer Type This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. 3. If a, b, A be given in a triangle and c 1 and c two possible values of third side such that c 1 + c 1 c + c = a, then A is equal to (A) 6 (B) 3 (C) 33. If sin is the G.M. between sin and cos, then cos is equal to (D) 3 (A) sin 4 (B) cos 4 (C) cos 4 (D) sin 4 P1R30111C0-11

13 34. If f(x + y) = f(x).f(y) for all x, y and f(1) = and a r = f(r) for r N then the coordinates of a point on the parabola y = 8x whose focal distance is 4 may be (A) (a 1, a ) (B) (a 1 a ) (C) (a 1, a 1 ) (D) (a, a 1 ) 35. The locus of extremities of the latus rectum of the family of ellipse b x + y = a b is (A) x ay = a (B) x ay = b (C) x + ay = a (D) x + ay = b 36. The solution of dy dx dy + y cotx = y is where c is arbitrary constant. dx (A) x = sin 1 c y (B) x = cos 1 c y (C) y = c 1 cos x (D) y = c 1 cos x SECTION - III Matrix - Match Type This section contains questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be drakened as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, s and t ; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following : P1R30111C0-1

14 37. Column-I Column-II (A) The number of ways, in which 1 red balls, 1 black (p) balls and 1 white balls be given to children each 18 is 1 6 (B) If 6 letter words are formed using the letters of the word (q) 17 NUMBER and the words are arranged in dictionary order, then the rank of the word NUMBER is (C) The probability that a divisor of the form 4n +, n = 0,1... (r) of the integer (D) If 3 numbers are selected from the set of the first 10 (s) 469 natural numbers the probability the they form an AP is (t) 1 5 P1R30111C0-13

15 38. A triangle ABC is inscribed in the parabola y = 4x with A at the vertex of the parabola and its orthocentre at the focus. Column-I Column-II (A) The distance of the chord BC from A. (p) (B) The distance of the centriod from A (q) 4 (C) The distance of the circumcentre from A (r) 10 3 (D) The inradius of ABC (s) 9 (t) 5 P1R30111C0-14

16 SECTION - IV Integer Answer Type This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below the respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened. 39. Number of polynomials of the form x 3 + ax + bx + c that are divisible by x + 1 where a, b, c {1,,...9,10} is equal to k where k is equal to 40. A point P(x, y) moves in xy plane in such a way that x + y + x y. The area of the region representing all possible positions of the point P is equal to in sq.units. P1R30111C0-15

17 41. In the adjacent figure, P is any arbitrary interior point of the triangle ABC. H a, H b and H c are the length of altitudes drawn from vertices A, B and C respectively. If x a, x b, x c represent the distances of P from sides BC, x a x b xc AC and AB respectively to the opposite sides then H + a H + b H is always equal to c 4. There are two teams with n persons in each. The probability of selecting persons from one team and one person from the other is 7 6, then value of n is P1R30111C0-16

18 PART - III SECTION - I Straight Objective Type This section contains 10 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct. 43. A tank with length 10 m, breadth 8 m and depth 6m is filled with water to the top. If g = 10 m s and density of water is 1000 kg m 3, then the thrust on the bottom is (A) N (B) N (C) N (D) N 44. A metal block is experiencing an atmospheric pressure of N/m, when the same block is placed in a vacuum chamber, the fractional change in its volume is (the bulk modulus of metal is N/m ) (A) (B) 10 7 (C) (D) In given figure, let W 1 and W be the workdone by the system in process A and B respectively then (initial and final volumes in both process remains same) (A) W 1 > W (B) W 1 = W (C) W 1 < W (D) Nothing can be said about the relation between W 1 and W 46. Water rises in a capillary tube to a height h. it will rise to a height more than h (A) on the surface of sun (B) in a lift moving down with an acceleration (C) at the poles (D) in a lift moving up with an acceleration. P1R30111C0-17

19 47. 0 gm ice at 10 ºC is mixed with m gm steam at 100 ºC. The minimum value of m so that finally all ice and steam converts into water is : (Use s ice =0.5 cal/gmºc,s water =1 cal/gmºc,l (melting)=80 cal/gm and L (vaporization)=540 cal/gm) (A) gm (B) gm (C) gm (D) None of these Heat flows radially outward through a spherical shell of outside radius 3R and inner radius R. The temperature of inner surface of shell is 1 and that of outer is. The radial distance from centre of shell where the temperature is just half way between 1 and is : 3R (A) R (B) 3R (C) 5R (D) 49. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron moving with a velocity ms 1 is equal to that of a photon. The ratio of the kinetic energy of the electron to that of the energy of photon is : 1 1 (A) (B) 4 (C) (D) In a uranium reactor whose thermal power is P = 00 MW, if the average number of neutrons liberated in each nuclear splitting is.5. Each splitting is assumed to release an energy E = 100 MeV. The number of neutrons generated per unit time is - 5 (A) (B) (C) (D) If the first minima in a Young s slit experiment occurs directly infornt of one of the slits. (distance between slit & screen D = 1 cm and distance between slits d = 5 cm) then the wavelength of the radiation used is : (A) cm only (B) 4 cm only (C) m, 3 cm, 5 cm (D) 4cm, 3 4 cm, 5 4 cm P1R30111C0-18

20 5. Force F is given in terms of time t and distance x by F = A sin C t + B cos D x Then the dimensions of B A and D C are given by (A) MLT, M 0 L 0 T 1 (B) MLT, M 0 L 1 T 0 (C) M 0 L 0 T 0, M 0 L 1 T 1 (D) M 0 L 1 T 1, M 0 L 0 T 0 SECTION - II Multiple Correct Answer Type This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for its answer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct. 53. A cyclic process ABCD is shown in the P V diagram. (BC and DA are isothermal) Which of the following curves represents the same process? (A) (B) (C) (D) P1R30111C0-19

21 54. In an x ray tube the voltage applied is 0KV. The energy required to remove an electron from L shell is 19.9 KeV. In the x rays emitted by the tube (hc = 140 evå) (A) minimum wavelength will be 6.1 pm (B) energy of the characterstic x rays will be equal to or less than 19.9 KeV (C) L x ray may be emitted (D) L x ray may have energy 19.9 KeV 55. The decay constant of a radio active substance is (years) -1. Therefore: (A) Nearly 63% of the radioactive substance will decay in (1/0.173) year. (B) half life of the radio active substance is (1/0.173) year. (C) one -forth of the radioactive substance will be left after nearly 8 years. (D) half of the substance will decay in one average life time. Use approximation n = In an interfrence arrangement similar to Young's double- slit experiment, the slits S 1 & S are illuminated with coherent microwave sources, each of frequency 10 6 Hz. The sources are synchronized to have zero phase difference. The slits are separated by a distance d = m and screen is at very large distance from slits. The intensity ( ) is measured as a function of, where is defined as shown. Screen is at a large distance. If 0 is the maximum intensity then ( ) for 0 90º is given by: 0 (A) ( ) = for = 30º (B) ( ) 0 when 90º (C) ( ) = 0 for = 0º (D) ( ) is constant for all values of P1R30111C0-0

22 57. A cubical block of wood of edge 10cm and mass 0.9kg floats on a tank of water with oil of rel. density 0.6. Thickness of oil is 4cm above water. When the block attains equilibrium with four of its sides edges vertical: (A) 1 cm of it will be above the free surface of oil (B) 5 cm of it will be under water. (C) cm of it will be above the common surface of oil and water. (D) 8 cm of it will be under water. SECTION - III Matrix - Match Type This section contains questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be drakened as illustrated in the following example. If the correct matches are A-p, s and t ; B-q and r; C-p and q; and D-s and t; then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following : 58. The energy, the magnitude of linear momentum, magnitude of angular momentum and orbital radius of an electron in a hydrogen atom corresponding to the quantum number n are E,p,L and r respectively.then according to Bohr's theory of hydrogen atom, match the expressions in column-i with statement in column-ii. Column-I Column-II (A) Epr (p) is independent of n. (B) E p (q) is directly proportional to n (C) Er (r) is inversely proportional to n. (D) pr (s) is directly proportional to L. (t) proportional to n x where x 0, 1,1 P1R30111C0-1

23 59. In a typical Young's double slit experiment, S 1 and S are identical slits and equidistant from a point monochromatic source S of light having wavelength. The distance between slits is represented by d and that between slits and screen is represented by D. P is a fixed point on the screen at a distance y = from central order bright on the screen: where D o, d o are initial values of D and d respectively. In each statement of column-i some changes are made to above mentioned situation. The effect of corresponding changes is given in column-ii. Match the statements in column-i with resulting changes in column-ii. D d o o Column-I Column-II (A) The distance d between the slits is doubled (p) fringe width increases. keeping distance between slits and screen fixed (B) The distance D between slit and screen is doubled (q) Magnitude of optical path difference between by shifting screen to right interfering waves at P will decrease. (C) The width of slit S 1 is decreased (such that (r) Magnitude of optical path difference intensity of light due to slit S 1 on screen between interfering waves at P decreases) and the distance D between slit will increase. and screen is doubled by shifting screen to right (D) The whole setup is submerged in water (s) The intensity at P will increase of refractive index 3 4. (neglecting absorption in medium) (t) The intensity at P will decrease P1R30111C0 -

24 SECTION - IV Integer Answer Type This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below the respective question number in the ORS have to be darkened. 60. In an experiment on photoelectric effect, light of wavelength 800 nm (less than threshold wavelength) is incident on a cesium plate at the rate of 5.0 W.The potential of the collector plate is made sufficiently positive with respect to the emitter so that the current reaches its saturation value.assuming that on the average one of every 10 6 photons is able to eject a photoelectron, the photo current in the circuit is in the form 8x 10 7 A. Find the x. [h = J.sec] Consider a point source emitting -particles and receptor of area 1 cm placed 1 m away from source. Receptor records any -particle falling on it. If the source contains N 0 = active nuclei and the receptor records a rate of A = counts/second, the decay constant is the form of 11K 10 7 S 1 1 Assume that the source emits alpha particles uniformly in all directions and the alpha particles fall nearly normally on the window. Find K. P1R30111C0-3

25 6. In a YDSE experiment, the distance between the slits & the screen is 100 cm. For a certain distance between the slits, an interference pattern is observed on the screen with the fringe width 0.5 mm. When the distance between the slits is increased by d = 1. mm, the fringe width decreased to n = /3 of the original value. In the final position, a thin glass plate of refractive index 1.5 is kept in front of one of the slits & the shift of central maximum is observed to be 0 fringe width. The thickness of the plate in the form of 1x m. Fill 'x'. 63. A spherical tungsten piece of area A = 1 m is suspended in an evacuated chamber maintained at 300 K. 1.8 The piece is maintained at 1000 K by heating it electrically. The rate at which the electrical energy must be supplied is 1417 x watt. The emissivity of tungsten is 0.30 and the stefan constant is W/m K 4. Find the 'x'. P1R30111C0-4

26 Name of the Candidate Roll Number I have read all the instructions and shall abide by them. I have verified all the information filled in by the Candidate Signature of the Candidate Signature of the Invigilator Example for Filling Test Cities Code in ORS : If your Test centre is Bhatinda and test code is 06 then fill in ORS : (a) (b) Test Code Test Centre Test Code Test Centre Test Code Test Centre 01 AHMEDABAD 0 AGRA 03 BENGALURU 04 BIKANER 05 BHOPAL 06 BHATINDA 07 BHUBNESHWAR 08 BOKARO 09 CHANDIGARH 10 DHANBAD 11 DEHRADUN 1 GUWAHATI 13 HYEDRABAD 14 INDORE 15 JAIPUR 16 KANPUR 17 KOLKATA 18 KOTA 19 LUCKNOW 0 MUMBAI- Andheri 1 MUMBAI- Thane MUMBAI- Nerul 3 MUMBAI- Dadar 4 MANGLURU 5 MUZAFFARPUR 6 NAGPUR 7 NEW DELHI- East 8 NEW DELHI- North West 9 NEW DELHI- South 30 PATNA 31 RAIPUR 3 RANCHI 33 SRI GANGANAGAR 34 SHAKTI NAGAR 35 UDAIPUR 36 UDUPI 37 VARANASI 38 BHAGALPUR 39 GWALIOR 40 PATHANKOT 41 RAJKOT 4 GORAKHPUR 43 BHILAI (Space for rough work)