VPKBIET, FE SEMESTER - II ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY THEORY QUESTION BANK

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1 VPKBIET, FE SEMESTER - II ENGINEERING CHEMISTRY THEORY QUESTION BANK UNIT- I: WATER TECHNOLOGY Q1. Describe Demineralisation process of softening of hard water. What are its advantages over Zeolite method? (6) Q2. How are alkalinities in a water sample determined? State the type of alkalinities. (6) Q3. Give the difference in sludge and scales in Boiler. Explain any one method of internal treatment for scales. (6) Q4. State the general principle involved in Internal Treatment of Boiler scales. Explain any two Methods of Internal Treatment. (6) Q5. State various ill effects of using hard water in boilers. Explain in detail (i) Scale and Sludge Formation, (ii) Boiler Corrosion. (6) Q6. Give causes, disadvantages of caustic embrittlement & propose methods to minimize it. (6) Q7. Give the cause, effects of boiler corrosion and the methods to minimize the corrosion. (3) Q8. What is meant by internal treatment of boiler feed water? Explain phosphate conditioning. (3) Q9. What is meant by hard water? What are the causes of hardness? Define alkaline & non- alkaline hardness of water. (3) Q10. Explain EDTA method of determining total hardness of water sample along with chemical reactions involved and structure of metal EDTA complex. (6) Q11. Explain caustic embrittlement & its effect. Suggest the remedies to avoid it. (3) Q12. Explain causes, disadvantages & prevention of (any two) a) Priming & foaming b) Scales & sludges c) Boiler corrosion d) Caustic embrittlement (6) Q13. State the effect of following impurities in water when used as a boiler feed & suggest the preventive measures (any three) : i) Oil & grease ii) Dissolved O 2 & CO 2 iii) CaSO 4 iv) Na 2 CO 3 (6) Q14. Explain base exchange by Zeolite process. Give regeneration reactions. (6) Q15. Write the chemical reactions involved in cation & anion exchanger, if water contains, i) Ca(HCO 3 ) 2 ii) MgSO 4 iii) Ca(NO 3 ) 2 (3) Q16. What is the internal treatment of boiler feed water? Explain Calgon & colloidal conditioning. (6) Q17. Name the type of phosphates used for a) Acidic water b) highly alkaline water & c) slightly alkaline water. Explain with chemical reactions. (3) Q18. Explain different types of impurities present in water with examples. (3) Q19. What is desalination of brackish water? Explain any one method of desalination. (6) Q20. Write short note on: i) Reverse osmosis. (ii) Electrodialysis. (6) Q21. Explain boiler corrosion and caustic embrittlement as ill effects of using hard water in boilers. State their causes and preventive measures. (6)

2 Q22. Describe Ion Exchange method for softening of hard water (6) Q23. Define scale and sludge. Give the causes, disadvantages and removal of scale and sludge from boiler. (6) Q24. What are Zeolites. Explain Zeolite process of softening of water. Give regeneration reactions, advantages and disadvantages of the process. (6) Q25. What are different types of hardness in water? Give procedure, reactions and formulae for determination of hardness of water sample using EDTA method. (6) Q26. What is desalination of brackish water? Explain reverse osmosis process for desalination of water. (3) Numerical Bank for Water Technology Q1) 100 ml water sample requires 4.3 ml of 0.02N HCl upto Phenolphthalein end point. And total 11.9 ml upto Methyl Orange end point. Calculate the type and amount of alkalinity present. (3) Q2) Find the hardness of water sample from the given data A zeolite bed gets exhausted on softening 2400 lit of water and requires 10 lit of 8% NaCl for regeneration. (3) Q3) 100 ml of water sample requires 18.5 ml of M/50 disodium EDTA for end point in titration. 100 ml of the same water sample after boiling and filtration, takes 10.7 ml of the disodium EDTA for end point in titration. Calculate temporary and permanent hardness of the water sample in ppm CaCO 3 equivalent. (3) Q4) A zeolite bed gets exhausted 3500 litres of water sample. It requires 10 litres of 10% NaCl solution for regeneration. Find the hardness of water sample. (3) Q5) An exhausted Zeolite softener bed was regenerated by passing 50 lit. of NaCl containing 250gm/lit of NaCl.Hard water sample of hardness 400 ppm CaCO 3 equivalent was softened by using the bed. Calculate quantity of hard water which can be softened by this bed. (3) Q6) 100 ml water sample requires 4 ml of N/50 H 2 SO 4 for neutralization to Phenolphthalein end point. Another 16 ml the same acid was needed for further titration to Methyl Orange end point. Determine the type and amount of alkalinities. (3) Q7) 100 ml sample water on titration with N/50 HCl required 17.5 ml for phenolphthalein end point. When methyl orange was added to the same, pink colour developed. Describe the type and amount of alkalinity present in the water sample. (3) Q8) Find the types and amount of alkalinities in the water sample if 100 ml water sample on titration with 0.02N H 2 SO 4 gave phenolphthalein end point 8.5ml of the acid and 12.5 ml acid was further required to methyl orange end point. (3) Q9) Hardness of 2,500 litres of water was removed completely by zeolite softener. The zeolite had required 40 litres of 100 gm lit. of NaCl to regenerate. Calculate hardness of water. (3) Q10) 50 ml of an alkaline water sample requires 9.2 ml of N/50 HCl upto phenolpthaline end point and total 13.1 ml of the acid for complete neutralization. Find the types and amounts of alkalinities in the water sample. (3) Q11) A Zeolite bed exhausted by softening 4,000 litres of a water sample requires 10 litres of 15% NaCl solution for regeneration. Calculate the hardness of the water sample. (3) Q12) 50 ml of water sample requires 12.7 ml of 0.02 M EDTA during titration. Calculate the total hardness of the water sample. (3)

3 Q13) 50ml standard water containing 1.2 gm CaCO 3 per litre required 15ml EDTA solution for the end point. Whereas 50 ml water sample required 19ml EDTA solution and 50 ml boiled sample water required 11ml of EDTA solution for the end point. Calculate total, temporary and permanent hardness of water sample. (3) Q14) An exhausted Zeolite softener was regenerated by passing 150 litres of sodium chloride solution having strength 150 gm/litre of NaCl. How many litres of hard water sample having hardness 400 ppm can be softened by using this softener? (3) Q15) A water sample is not alkaline to phenolphthalein. However 100 ml of water sample on titration with N/50 HCl required 16.9 ml of acid to get methyl orange end point. Identify the type and determine the extent of alkalinity. (3) Q16) 50 ml of water sample requires 18 ml of 0.05 M EDTA during titration. Whereas 50 ml of boiled water sample required 12.5 ml of same EDTA solution in the titration. Calculate total, temporary and permanent hardness of water sample. (3) Q17) 50 ml of water sample requires 12.1 ml of N/50 HCl for the phenolphthalein end point and 18.5 ml of the same acid for the methyl orange end point. Calculate types and amount of alkalinities present. (3) Q18) 50 ml of water sample requires 15 ml of 0.02 M EDTA during titration. Whereas 50 ml of boiled water sample requires 11 ml of same EDTA solution in the titration. Calculate total, temporary and permanent hardness of water sample. (3) UNIT- I: GREEN CHEMISTRY Q1) State in brief goals of green chemistry. (6) Q2) Define the term which gives information about maximum incorporation of the reactants into the final product. Explain with suitable example. (3) Q3) Discuss the synthesis of polycarbonate by traditional route and compare it with greener route. (6) Q4) Discuss the synthesis of polycarbonate by greener route and compare it with traditional route. (6) Q5) Give the alternative process for the synthesis of indigo dye. State the advantages of this process. (6) Q6) Discuss the synthesis of indigo dye by traditional route and compare it with greener route. (6) Q7) Give the synthesis of adipic acid by traditional route and compare it with greener route. (6) Q8) Give the synthesis of adipic acid by greener route and compare it with traditional route. (6) Q9) Discuss the research efforts made using green chemistry approach in the area of, (3) a) Alternative feedstock. b) Alternative reagents. Q10) Explain any six principals of green chemistry. (6) Q11) What are the drawbacks of traditional synthesis of indigo dye? Which is the starting substance in its green route synthesis? What are the advantages of green route synthesis over traditional? (3) Q12) What are the drawbacks (demerits) of traditional synthesis of polycarbonate? Which is the starting substance in its green route synthesis? What are the advantages(merits) of green route synthesis over traditional? (3) Q13) What are the drawbacks of traditional synthesis of adipic acid? Which is the starting substance in its green route synthesis? What are the advantages of green route synthesis over traditional? (3) Q14) What are merits of green synthesis and demerits of traditional synthesis of indigo dye? (3) Q15) Explain any three principals of green chemistry. (3)

4 UNIT- II: ELECTROANALYTICAL TECHNIQUES Q1) Define electrode potential. Write the half cell reactions taking place on iron, when it is connected with copper and placed in dilute sulphuric acid solution. (3) Q2) Describe construction of indicator electrode i.e. glass electrode and represent the electrode. (3) Q3) Describe the procedure for titration of Fe +2 / Ce +4 titration using potentiometry. (6) Q4) How the end point of redox titration is determined using potentiometric titration. Explain with Suitable example. (6) Q5) What are buffers? Explain the buffer action? Q6) Explain the ph metric titration of mixture of H 3 PO4 and HCl against standard NaOH giving chemical reactions, procedure, titration curve and calculations. (6) Q7) Explain the ph metric titration of mixture of CH 3 COOH and HCl against standard NaOH giving chemical reactions, procedure and titration curve (6) Q8) Define:- a) Conductance. b) Specific conductance. c) Equivalent conductance. d) Molar conductance e) Cell constant f) Resistance (1Each) Q9) State Kohlrausch s law and explain how the mobility of ions affect the conductance of the electrolyte? (3) Q10) Explain the titration curves for conductometric titration in case of strong acid weak base andweak acid weak base titration. (6) Q11) Explain construction of conductivity cell used in the measurement of conductance of solution. (3) Q12) Expalin the principle, instrumentation and applications of UV Visible spectrophotometer. (6) Q13) State and explain Beer s law of absorption. (3) Q14) Define the term auxochrome. Explain with suitable example. (3) Q15) Define the term chromophore. Explain with suitable example. (3) Q16) What is meant by red (Bathochromic shift)? Why it occurs? Explain with example. (3) Q17) Define hypsochromic shift (blue shift). Give reason for blue shift and explain with example. (3) Q18) Draw schematic block diagram for single beam and double beam spectrophotometry. (6) Q19) Explain the titration curves for conductometric titration in case of strong acid strong base and weak acid strong base titration. (6) Q20) What is meant by hyperchromic effect? Explain with example. (3) Q21) What is meant by hypochromic effect? Explain with example. (3) Q22) Explain redox titration between Ce (IV) ion and Fe(II) ion solution giving reactions. Draw the titration curve and give the formulae for calculating emf of the cell at various stages of titration. (6) Q23) Explain different types of Electronic transitions that occur in an organic molecule after absorbing UV Visible radiations. (4/6) Q24) Explain ph metric titration of mixture of weak acid-strong acid against standard alkali, giving reactions, procedure, titration curve and calculations. (6) Q25) Which are the possible transitions that occur when molecule absorbs UV-Visible radiation? Which type of electronic transitions will be possible in following molecules? (i) CH 2 = CH CH 2 CH 3 (ii) CH 3 CH 2 OH (3) O (ii) CH 3 C CH 3 (iv) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 CH 3 Q26) Explain the effect of dilution on specific conductance and equivalent conductance. (3)

5 Q27) Calculate potential on redox electrode dipped in titration mixture, when 20 ml of 0.1 N Ce 4+ solution from burette is added in 100 ml 0.1 N Fe 2+ solution. Standard reduction potentials for Fe 2+ Fe 3+ and Ce 4+ Ce 3+ are 0.75 V and 1.45 V respectively. (3) Q28) Explain the conductometric titration curve of KCl against AgNO 3 solution from burette. (3) Q29) Explain conductometric titration curve for reaction between weak acid & strong base titration. (3) Q30) Define the following terms: (i) Bathochromic shift (ii) Hypochromic shift (iii) Chromophore. (3) Q31) What is reference electrode? Draw neat labelled diagram of glass electrode and give its representation. (3) Q32) What is Kohlrausch s law? State its applications. (3) Q33) What is reference electrode? Draw neat labelled diagram of calomel electrode and give its representation. (3) UNIT- III: SYNTHETIC ORGANIC POLYMERS Q1) Give the definitions & give one example each. (1mark each) i) Monomer ii) Polymer iii) Degree of polymerization (Dp) iv) Glass Transition temperature.( Tg) v) Polymerization vi) Functionality Q2) Write a note on molecular weight of polymers. (3) Q3) Give any one method for averaging molecular weight of polymer. (3) Q4) What is Glass transition temperature? Explain importance and factors affecting the same. (6) Q5) Distinguish thermoplastic and thermosetting polymers with suitable example. (3) Q6) Explain free radical mechanism for addition polymerization w.r.t. monomer as vinyl alcohol and initiator as acetyl peroxide. (3) Q7) Explain free radical mechanism for addition polymerization w.r.t. monomer as styrene and initiator as benzoyl peroxide. (3) Q8) Give preparation properties & uses of, a) Polyethylene & b) Epoxy resin. (6) Q9) What is Vulcanization of rubber? Give the structural changes taking place on Vulcanization using Sulphur. (6) Q10) Give the step growth mechanism of chain polymerization of an example. Q11) Give preparation reaction, properties & uses of SBR. (3) Q12) Compare the following - (a) Chain and step polymerization. (3) (b) Natural rubber & vulcanized rubber. (3) Q13) Distinguish between LDPE and HDPE. (any 4 points) (3) Q14) Explain bulk polymerization technique with diagram and give advantages and disadvantages. (6) Q15) Explain solution polymerization technique with diagram and give advantages & disadvantages. (6) Q16) Explain suspension polymerization technique with diagram and give advantages and disadvantages. (6) Q17) Explain emulsion polymerization technique with diagram and give advantages and disadvantages. (6) Q18) What are engineering thermoplastics? Give advantages of engineering thermoplastics. (3) Q19) What are biodegradable polymers? Explain the features of the polymer that undergo biodegradation. Give applications of biodegradable polymers. (6)

6 Q20) Give structure and mechanism of conduction of polyacetylene. (3) Q21) What are electroluminescent polymers? Explain use of electroluminescent polymers in LED. (3) Q22) What is fibre reinforced plastic? Explain any one type of fibre reinforced plastic with composition, advantages and applications. (6) Q23) Define Vulcanization of rubber? Explain Vulcanization of natural rubber along with chemical reactions involved. Compare natural rubber with vulcanized rubber w.r.t. their properties. (6) Q24) Give structural change on vulcanization of natural rubber molecules with sulphur. How does it affects the strength? (3) Q25) Define biodegradation of polymers. State favourable structure of polymer for degradation. Write structure of biopol (PHBV). (3) Q26) Define addition Polymerization. Explain free radical reaction mechanism with suitable example. (6) Q27) Give preparation reaction, properties & uses of following polymers. a) LDPE b) SBR. (6) Q28) Give the purpose and examples of the following constituents used during the compounding of plastics: i) Fillers (ii) Lubricants (iii) Pasticizers? (3) Q29) Define glass transition temperature. Give its significance & discuss any four factors affecting it. (6) UNIT- IV: FUELS & COMBUSTION Q1) Define: Gross and Net Calorific Value. Give the justification of how they are related. (3) Q2) Explain working of Bomb Calorimeter with diagram. Give corrected formula (6) Q3) Explain how Boy s gas calorimeter is used to measure calorific value of gaseous fuels. (6) Q4) Explain the principle & method for determining C.V. of highly volatile fuel or gaseous fuel. (6) Q5) State & explain different corrections in determination of GCV using Bomb calorimeter and write the corrected formula. (3) Q6) Explain knocking in petrol engine. Define octane number and explain effect of chemical structure of hydrocarbons present in petrol on knocking. (6) Q7) What is proximate analysis? Mention the principle involved in the analysis of each of the constituents with its formula. (6) Q8) What is ultimate analysis? Mention principle involved in the analysis of each element. How theoretical calorific value is determined by this analysis. (6) Q9) Describe Kjeldahl s method of estimating % nitrogen in coal. Q10) How % of C & % H is determined in coal. Q11) How % of S in coal is determined from washings of Bomb Calorimeter / Eschka method. Q12) Explain advantages and Limitations of Biodiesel. (3) Q13) What is Knocking? Explain Octane Number and Cetane Number of fuel. (6) Q14) Give composition, boiling range and uses of any three fractions obtained. (3) Q15) What is the difference between knocking in petrol engine & diesel engine. (3) Q16) Describe the process of distillation of crude petroleum with diagram. Give composition, boiling range and uses of any three fractions obtained. (6) Q17) What is biodiesel? How is it made? Give the general chemical reaction involved (4) /(6) Q18) Give composition properties & applications of any two of the following gaseous fuels: a) Natural Gas b) CNG c) LPG (6) Q19) Total quantity of oxygen required for combustion of solid fuels is given by formula,

7 (2.67C + 8H + S O), explain. (3) Q20) What is the difference between complete & incomplete combustion? Give combustion reactions for butane, ethane, methane, propane, ethylene, propylene, ethanol, acetylene. (Any 4) (6) Q21) What is power alcohol? Give its preparation with reactions and any two disadvantages. (3) Q22) Define: a) Octane number b) Power alcohol c) Gross calorific value (3) Q23) Draw neat labelled diagram and give construction, working of Bomb calorimeter to determine GCV of a fuel. State the formula of GCV with the corrections. (6) Numerical Bank Q1. One gram of the coal sample was burnt in combustion tube in oxygen. CO 2 was absorbed in KOH and water vapour in CaCl 2. The increase in weight of KOH & CaCl 2 was and gm respectively. Determine the %C and %H in the sample. Q gm of a fuel containing 80% carbon when burnt in a bomb calorimeter, increased temperature of water from C to C. if the calorimeter contains 250 gm of water & its water equivalent is 150 gm, calculate GCV of the fuel. Q3. A petrol sample contains 14% H and 86% C, calculate the quantity of air required for complete combustion of 1Kg of petrol. Q4. Find the % of C and H in coal sample from the following data 0.20 gm of coal on burning in a combustion tube in presence of pure oxygen was found to increase in the weight of CaCl 2 tube by 0.08 gm and KOH tube by 0.12 gm. Q gm of coal sample was weighed in a silica crucible. After heating in an electric oven at C for one hour, the residue weighed 2.25 gm. The crucible was then covered with vented lid and strongly heated for exactly 7 minutes at C. The residue weighed as 1.42 gm. The crucible was further heated without lid until a constant weight was obtained. The last residue was found to be 0.22 gm. Calculate the percentage results of the above analysis. Q6. Volumetric analysis of producer gas is H 2 = 20%, CH 4 = 2%, N 2 = 50%, CO =22%, CO 2 =6%. Find the volume of air required for complete combustion of 1m 3 of the gas. Air contains 21% by volume of oxygen. Q7. Volumetric analysis of Producer gas is: H 2 = 20%, CH 4 = 2%, CO = 22%, CO 2 = 6% & N 2 = 50%. Find the volume of air required for complete combustion of 1m 3 of gas. Q8. In Boy s gas calorimeter experiment: when 0.1m 3 of a fuel gas is burnt during which 25 kg of water is circulated. Temperature of incoming water and outgoing water is 20 0 C & 33 0 C respectively. Weight of steam condensed is 250 gm. Calculate gross and net calorific values, if heat liberated in condensing water vapours and cooling the condensate is 586 kcal/kg. (3) Q9. A sample of coal containing 5% H 2 when allowed to undergo combustion in Bomb calorimeter, the following data were obtained. Wt of coal burnt = 0.95 gm Wt of water taken = 700 gm Water equivalent of bomb calorimeter = 2000 gm Rise in temperature = C Cooling correction = C Fuse wire correction = 10 cal Acid correction = 60 cal Calculate Gross and Net calorific value of coal.

8 Q10. A gas has following composition by volume: H 2 = 20%, CH 4 = 6%, CO = 22%, CO 2 = 4%, O 2 = 4% & N 2 = 44%. Find the volume of air actually supplied per m 3 of this gas. Q gm of coal sample was burnt in stream of oxygen at C in a combustion tube. There was increase of Mg-perchlorate unit by gm and that of soda-lime unit by gm after combustion. Find out % C and H of coal sample. Q12. The coal containing 5% hydrogen (moisture free) and 10% moisture has gross calorific value of 33.5 MJ/Kg. Calculate Net calorific value of coal. Latent heat of water vapour is 2.45 MJ/ Kg. (3) Q13. A sample of coal has following composition: C = 75%, H 2 = 5.2%, O 2 = 12.8%, S = 1.2%, N 2 = 3.7%, Ash = 2.1%. Find the minimum amount of air required for complete combustion of 1 kg of coal. Q14. A fuel has the following composition by mass. C = 83%, H = 12%, O 2 = 3.2%, S = 1% and the remaining being ash. Calculate theoretical weight of air. Q gm of coal sample was heated in a silica crucible in an electric oven at C for one hour, the residue weighed 1.16 gm. The residue was ignited at constant weight of 0.09 gm. In another experiment 1.2 gm of sample was heated in silica crucible covered with lid at C for 7 min. After cooling the residue weighed 0.8 gm. Calculate percentage of fixed carbon. Q16. Compute the proximate analysis results: 1.8 g of a coal sample looses 0.27g weight at C. 1.5 g of the same coal sample looses 0.36 g weight at C and 2.2 g of the coal sample leaves 0.28 g of ash. Q17. A gaseous fuel contains H 2 = 45%, CH 4 = 30%, N 2 = 3%, CO= 6%, C 2 H 4 = 2%, C 2 H 6 =5%, & H 2 O vapour = 4%. Calculate the volume of air required for complete combustion of 1m 3 of gas. Q18. A gaseous fuel contains H 2 = 50%, CH 4 = 30%, N 2 = 2%, CO = 7%, C 2 H 4 = 3%, C 2 H 6 = 5%, H 2 O vapour = 3%. Calculate the volume of air required for complete combustion of 1m 3 of gas. Q19. A coal sample was subjected to ultimate analysis; following are the results of different analysis: (i) 0.24 g of sample on combustion gave g of CO 2 and g of H 2 O. (ii) 1.4 g of sample in a Kjeldahl s experiment liberated ammonia which was absorbed in 50 ml N/10 H 2 SO 4. The resultant solution required 10 ml of N/10 NaOH solution for complete neutralization. (iii) 3.2 g of sample was analysed by Eschka method and gave g BaSO 4. (6) Q20. Calculate C, H, N, S % from the following observations for a sample of coal: (i) 2.05 g of the coal is burnt in combustion tube. The increase in weight of anhydrous CaCl 2 is 0.55 gm and increase in weight of KOH tube is 5.75 gm. (ii) 0.75 gm of coal in a Kjeldahl s experiment released ammonia which is passed in 50 ml 0.12N HCl. The HCl requires 41 ml of 0.12N NaOH to neutralise in back titration. (iii) Washings of Bomb pot when 1.8 gm of the coal sample in Bomb calorimeter experiment is treated with BaCl 2 solution to give 0.31gm BaSO 4. Q21. A producer gas used as a fuel has following volumetric composition: H 2 =28%, CO=12%, CH 4 =2%, CO 2 =16%, N 2 = 42%. Find the volume of air required for complete combustion of 1m 3 of the gas. Air contains 21% by volume of oxygen. Q g of air-dried coal sample was taken in a silica crucible after heating it in an electric oven at C for 1hour, the residue weighed g. The residue was then ignited at C to a constant weight of g. In another experiment 1g of the same sample was heated in a silica crucible covered with a vented lid at a temperature C for 7 min. After cooling the weight of residue was found to be 0.635g. Calculate % of fixed carbon. (6)

9 Q23. A sample of coal was analysed as follows: Exactly 2.5 g was weighed into a silica crucible. After heating for one hour at C, the residue weighed g. The crucible next was covered with a vented lid and strongly heated for exactly 7 min at C. The residue weighed 1.528g. The crucible was then heated without the cover, until a constant weight was obtained. The last residue was found to be 0.245g. Calculate the percentage results of above analysis. Q gm of coal sample was heated in a silica crucible in an electric oven at C for one hour, the residue weighed 1.16 g. The crucible was ignited to constant weight of 0.09 g. In another experiment 1.2 g of sample was heated in silica crucible covered with vented lid at C for 7 min. After cooling the residue weighed 0.8 g. Calculate percentage of fixed carbon. (6) Q g of coal sample in Kjeldahl s experiment liberated ammonia which was absorbed in 50ml 0.05N Sulphuric acid. The resultant solution required 14 ml of 0.1N NaOH for complete neutralization of H 2 SO 4 in back titration. The reading for blank titration was 25 ml. Find percent of N in coal. (3) Q26. Volumetric analysis of producer gas used as fuel is as: H 2 =20%, CO =22%, N 2 =50%, CH 4 =2%, CO 2 = 10%. Air contains 21% by volume of O 2. Find air required for combustion of 1 m 3 of gas.(3) Q27. A gaseous fuel contains: H 2 = 50%, O= 7%, CH 4 = 30%, C 2 H 4 = 3%, C 2 H 6 = 5%, N 2 = 2% & H 2 O vap = 3%. Calculate the volume of air required for complete combustion of 1m 3 of the gas. (3) Q28. A coal containing 62.5% C, 4.3% H, 6.4% O, 1.3% N, 0.9% S, 15.1% moisture & 9.5% ash was burnt. Calculate the weight of air theoretically required per Kg of coal. (3) Q29. Calculate the amount of air (20% excess) required for complete combustion of 1kg wood if it contains 55% C, 8% H, 5% O and remaining non-combustible part. (3) Q30. A coal sample contains C: 80%, H: 10%, S: 2.5%, N: 4% and remaining is ash. Calculate the theoretical amount of and air required for complete combustion of 1 kg of given coal sample. (3) Q31. A gaseous fuel used in internal combustion engine contains: H 2 = 30%, CH 4 = 45%, CO = 20%, N 2 = 5% by volume. Find the minimum quantity (volume) of air required for complete combustion of 1m 3 of the gaseous fuel. Q32. A coal sample has the following composition: C = 70%, H 2 = 10%, O 2 = 2%, S = 3%, N 2 = 3% and Ash = 12%. If 20% excess air is required for complete combustion, then calculate the amount of air required for complete combustion of 1 kg of coal. (3) Q33. Calculate carbon and hydrogen in coal sample from following data: 0.25 gm of coal sample on burning in combustion chamber in current of pure oxygen, was found to increase weight of CaCl 2 U-tube by 0.12 gm and KOH U-tube by 0.57 gm. (3) Q34. A fuel has following composition by mass C: 83%, H: 12%, O 2 = 3.2% and remaining is ash. Calculate the quantity of air required for complete combustion of 1 kg of fuel. (3) Q35. The following observations were noted in Boy s gas calorimeter experiment: volume of gas burnt at STP = 0.1m 3, mass of cooling water used = 25 kg, rise in temperature of circulating water = C and mass of steam condensed = 0.04 Kg. Calculate GCV and NCV of the fuel (3) UNIT- V: CHEMISTRY OF HYDROGEN & CARBON Q1. What are the isotopes of hydrogen? Give any two applications of hydrogen. Q2. What is electrolysis of water? Explain the industrial process involved in it. Q3. Explain production of hydrogen by water splitting using solar energy. (5) Q4. Describe the use of sodium alanate for H 2 storage.

10 Q5. Describe the storage of hydrogen in the form of carbon material with two examples. Q6. Account for difficulties faced in the storage and transportation of hydrogen. Q7. Describe methane with laboratory and industrial scale preparation and its applications. Q8. Explain how Germane can be prepared. Q9. What are molecular hydrides? Give preparation reaction, properties and uses of Germane. (4) Q10. Describe ammonia laboratory scale preparation& applications. Q11. Explain how saline hydrides are formed. Give preparation and applications of one saline hydride. Q12. Give applications of hydrogen in various industries. Q13. Give an account of H 2 as a future fuel. Q14. Explain the isotopes of carbon with their applications. Q15. Explain the terms: i) Catenation (ii) Carbon dating. (5) Q16. Explain structural features and applications of diamond. Q17. Explain structural features and applications of graphite. Q18. What is intercalation? Explain oxidative & reductive intercalation of graphite with example. Q19. Explain basic structure and applications of graphene. Q20. Explain preparation and structure of activated carbon and carbon black. Q21. Explain any two partially crystalline allotrope of carbon with structure and applications. Q22. Explain the storage of hydrogen in compressed and liquefied form. Explain difficulties in the said storage systems. Q23. Explain the isotopes of carbon and hydrogen. (5) Q24. What are the types of CNT with respect to their structure? Give their applications. Q25. Explain chemical storage method of hydrogen gas in the form of alanates and metal hydrides. (5) Q26. What are carbon nanotubes? Explain their types with structure in detail & applications. Q27. Give industrial methods of manufacturing of hydrogen gas. (5) Q28. Give preparation reactions of saline hydrides. (3) Q29. Give structure, one method of preparation and applications of silane. Q30. Explain manufacturing of hydrogen gas by steam reforming of (i) methane and (ii) coke. Q31. Explain the structural features of Fullerene with diagram and give its applications. (C 60 ) Give any two properties. (5) Q32. What are different types of hydrides? Give preparation reaction of Germane, Silane and lithium hydride. (5) Q33. Give the isotopes of hydrogen with their applications and write the properties of hydrogen which makes it more difficult to store and transport. (5) Q34. Give the preparation reaction and applications of germane and lithium hydride. Q35. Discuss any four properties of hydrogen which make it difficult for storage and transportation. (4) Q36. Explain production of hydrogen gas by steam reforming of methane and coke with reaction conditions and removal of CO 2. (6) Q37. What are saline hydrides? Give preparation reaction of sodium hydride with any two uses. (3) Q38. Explain the structural features and properties of graphite. (3) Q39. Explain the structural features and properties of diamond. (3)

11 UNIT- VI: CORROSION Q1. Anodic metallic coatings provide better protection to metal than cathodic ones. Comment. (4) Q2. What is meant by atmospheric corrosion? Explain giving different chemical reactions. (5) Q3. Distinguish between: Anodic coatings and cathodic coatings. (4) Q4. Explain the hydrogen evolution & oxygen absorption mechanism of electrochemical corrosion.(5) Q5. Explain impurity in metal and relative anodic-cathodic areas as factor in corrosion. (4) Q6. Compare: Galvanizing and Tinning (4) Q7. Give the Pourbaix diagram and state the uses of the diagram for a metal. (4) Q8. Explain anodic protection of metals for corrosion control with advantages. (4) Q9. How the metals are coated by hot dipping methods? Give the applications of galvanizing and tinning. (6) Q10. Describe electroplating and its applications. (4) Q11. What are surface conversion coatings? Discuss any two methods in detail for applying these coatings. (4) Q12. What is oxidation corrosion? Give general mechanism of oxidation corrosion (4) Q13. What is Pilling Bedworth rule? How the ratio affects the rate of corrosion (4) Q14. Discuss various factors affecting the rate of corrosion based on nature of metal. (5) Q15. Discuss various factors affecting the rate of corrosion considering nature of environment. (5) Q16. Why anodic coatings are preferred than cathodic coatings on metals? (4) Q17. Describe any two methods of applying metallic coating. (6) Q18. Explain surface preparation/surface treatment for applying protective coatings on the metal surface. (4) Q19. What are the objectives & applications of electroplating on metal (4) Q20. Explain different types of surface conversion coating. (4) Q21. When coating is ruptured, iron is protected in galvanized sheet but not in tin coated sheet. Explain. (4) Q22. What is powder coating? Explain any one method of powder coating. Give its applications. (5) Q23. Discuss various steps involved in powder coating. (4) Q24. How is steel galvanized? Explain the process with the help of a flow diagram. (6) / (4) Q25. Give conditions under which the wet corrosion occurs. Explain the mechanism of wet corrosion by hydrogen evolution with suitable example. (4) Q26. What is oxidation corrosion? Give general mechanism of oxidation corrosion. Compare oxidation corrosion which occurs in Na metal, Cu metal and Molybdenum (Mo) metal. (5) Q27. What are different types of metallic coatings? Which one is preferred? Why? (3) /(4) Q28. Account on nature of oxide films on metal surface and its effect on further corrosion. (4) Q29. What is Pilling Bedworth ratio? Give four types of oxide films formed on the surface of metal with suitable example. (4) Q30. What is principle of Cathodic protection? Explain it with any one method. (4) Q31. Discuss factors affecting rate of corrosion, two each, for nature of metal and nature of environment. (4)

12 Q32. State the types of oxide film formed on the surface of following metals with reactions - Na, Al, Au and Mo. (4) Q33. What is cathodic coating? Explain tinning with neat labelled diagram to protect metal from corrosion. (4) Q34. Define electroplating. Explain electroplating process with neat labelled diagram and applications. (4) Q35. Give Pilling Bedworth ratio and its significance. Give the oxidation reaction involved and state the type of the film formed on the surface in the case of Mg, Cr and Mo. (5) Q36. Explain the process of galvanising with labelled diagram. Give the applications and limitations of this technique. (4) Q37. State the different types of corrosion inhibitors with their examples. Discuss in brief their role in corrosion prevention. (4) Q38. Discuss any five factors affecting corrosion. (5) Q39. Define wet corrosion. Explain corrosion by hydrogen evolution mechanism. (4) Q40. Explain cementation and cladding methods for applying metallic coatings on base metal. (4) Q41. Define corrosion and explain effect of following factors on rate of corrosion (i) Purity of metal (ii) Relative area of anode and cathode (5) A. G. Sajjan