CBSE-AIPMT. Q.1 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene can be prepared by heating which of the following compounds with a strong acid? (B) (A)

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1 I CBSE-AIPMT All India Pre Medical Test 2015 Q.1 2,3-Dimethyl-2-butene can be prepared by heating which of the following compounds with a strong acid? (A) (CH 3)C = CH CH2 CH3 (B) (CH 3) 2CH CH2 CH = CH2 (C) (D) (CH 3) 3C CH = CH2 Q.2 Gadolinium belongs of 4f series. Its atomic number is 64. Which of the following is the correct electronic configuration of gadolinium? (A) [Xe]4f 5d 6s (B) [Xe]4f 5d 6s (C) 8 2 [Xe]4f 6d (D) 9 1 [Xe]4f 5s Q.3 The formation of the oxide ion, O 2 (g), from oxygen atom requires first an exothermic and then an endothermic step as shown in below: Θ 1 O(g) + e O (g); H = 141kJ mol f 2 Θ 1 + f =+ O (g) e O (g); H 780 kj mol Thus process of formation of O 2 in gas phase is unfavourable though O2 is isoelectronic with neon. It is due to the fact that, (A) Oxygen is more electronegative. (B) Addition of electron in oxygen results in larger size of the ion. (C) Electron repulsion outweighs the stability gained by achieving noble gas configuration. (D) O ion has comparatively smaller size than oxygen atom. Q.4 The number of structural isomers possible from the molecular formula C 3 H 9 N is: (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

2 II Q.5 If the equilibrium constant for N 2 (g) + O 2 (g) 2NO(g) is K, the equilibrium constant for 1 1 N 2(g) + O 2(g) NO(g) will be: 2 2 (A) K (B) K 2 (C) 1 2 K Q.6 Which one of the following pairs of solution is not an acidic buffer? (A) H 2 CO 3 and Na 2 CO 3 (B) H 3 PO 4 and Na 3 PO 4 (C) HClO 4 and NaClO 4 (D) 1 K 2 (D) CH 3 COOH and CH 3 COONa Q.7 Aqueous solution of which of the following compounds is the best conductor of electric current? (A) Ammonia, NH 3 (B) Fructose, C 6 H 12 O 6 (C) Acetic acid, C 2 H 4 O 2 Q.8 Caprolactum is used for the manufacture of: (D) Hydrochloric acid, HCl (A) Terylene (B) Nylon-6,6 (C) Nylon-6 (D) Teflon Q.9 On heating which of the following releases CO 2 most easily? (A) MgCO 3 (B) CaCO 3 (C) K 2 CO 3 (D) Na 2 CO 3 Q.10 Strong reducing behaviour of H 3 PO 2 is due to: (A) High oxidation state of phosphorus (B) Presence of two OH groups and one p H bond (C) Presence of one OH group and two p H bonds (D) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus Q.11 Decreasing order of stability of and is : (A) (C) O > O > O > O (B) O > O > O > O (D) > 2 > 2 > 2 O O O O > 2 > 2 > 2 O O O O Q.12 The number of water molecules is maximum in: (A) 18 gram of water (B) 18 moles of water (C) 18 molecules of water (D) 1.8 gram of water

3 III Q.13 In which of the following pairs, both the species are not isostructural? (A) NH 3, PH 3 (B) XeF 4, XeO 4 (C) SiCl 4, (D) Diamond, silicon carbide Q.14 In the reaction with HCl, an alkene reacts in accordance with the Markovnikov s rule, to give a product 1-chloro-1-methylcyclohexane. The possible reaction alkene is: Q.15 Assuming complete ionization, same moles of which of the following compounds will require the least amount of acidified KMnO 4 for complete oxidation? (A) FeC 2 O 4 (B) Fe(NO 2 ) 2 (C) FeSO 4 (D) FeSO 3 Q.16 Reaction of phenol with chloroform in presence of dilute sodium hydroxide finally introduces which one of the following functional group? (A) CHCl 2 (B) CHO (C) CH 2 Cl (D) COOH Q.17 The vacant space in bcc lattice unit cell is: (A) 23% (B) 32% (C) 26% (D) 48% Q.18 Which of the statements given below is incorrect? (A) ONF is isoelectronic with O 2 N - (B) OF 2 is an oxide of fluorine (C) Cl 2 O7 is an anhydride of perchloric acid (D) O 3 molecule is bent Q.19 The name of complex ion, [Fe(CN) 6 ] 3 is : (A) Tricyanoferrate (III) ion (C) Hexacyanoiron (III) ion (B) Hexacyanidoferrate (III) ion (D) Hexacyanitoferrate (III) ion Q.20 If Avogadro number N A, is changed from mol 1 to mol 1, this would change: (A) The ratio of chemical species to each other in a balanced equation. (B) The ratio of elements to each other in a compound. (C) The definition of mass in units of grams (D) The mass of one mole of carbon

4 IV Q.21 Which of the following statements is not correct for a nucleophile? (A) Nucleophiles attack low e density sites (B) Nucleophiles are not electron seeking (C) Nucleophile is a Lewis acid (D) Ammonia is a nucleophile Q.22 A gas such as carbon monoxide would be most likely to obey the ideal gas law at: (A) High temperatures and high pressures (B) Low temperatures and low pressures (C) High temperatures and low pressures (D) Low temperatures and high pressures Q.23 The hybridization involved in complex [Ni(CN) 4 ] 2 is: (Atomic number of Ni = 28) (A) d 2 sp 2 (B) d 2 sp 3 (C) dsp 2 (D) sp 3 Q.24 The heat of combustion of carbon to CO 2 is kj/mol. The heat released upon formation of 35.2 g of CO 2 from carbon and oxygen gas is: (A) 630 kj (B) 3.15 kj (C) 315 kj (D) +315 kj Q g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8.0 g magnesium oxide. What will be the percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the sample? (Atomic weight: Mg = 24) (A) 60 (B) 84 (C) 75 (D) 96 Q.26 What is the mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 m aqueous solution? (A) (B) (C) (D) Q.27 The correct statement regarding defects in crystalline solids is: (A) Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect (B) Frenkel defect is found in halides of alkaline metals (C) Schottky defects have no effect on the density of crystalline solids (D) Frenkel defects decrease the density of crystalline solids Q.28 The stability of +1 oxidation state among Al, Ga, In and TI increases in the sequence: (A) TI < In < Ga < Al (C) Ga < In < Al < TI (B) In < TI < Ga < Al (D) Al < Ga < In < TI

5 V Q.29 Two possible stereo-structures of CH 3 CHOH COOH, which are optically active, are called: (A) Enantiomers (B) Mesomers (C) Diastereomers (D) Atropisomers Q.30 The following reaction is known by the name: (A) Acetylation reaction (C) Friedel-Craft s reaction (B) Schotten-Baumen reaction (D) Perkin s reaction Q.31 The sum of coordination number and oxidation number of metal M in the complex [M(en) 2 (C 2 O 4 )]Cl (Where en is ethylenediamine) is: (A) 7 (B) 8 (C) 9 (D) 6 Q.32 Reaction of a carbonyl compound with one of the following reagents involves nucleophilic addition followed by elimination of water. The reagent is: (A) Hydrocyanic acid (B) Sodium hydrogen sulphite (C) A Grignard reagent (D) Hydrazine in presence of feebly acidic solution Q.33 Which one of the following esters gets hydrolyzed most easily under alkaline conditions? Q.34 In an S N 1 reaction on chiral centres, there is: (A) 100% retention (B) 100% inversion (C) 100% racemization (D) Inversion more than retention leading to partial racemization

6 VI Q.35 The rate constant of the reaction A B is mole per second. If the concentration of A is 5M, then concentration of B after 20 minutes is: (A) 0.36 M (B) 0.72 M (C) 1.08 M (D) 3.60 M Q.36 What is the ph of the resulting solution when equal volumes of 0.1 m NaOH and 0.01 M HCl are mixed? (A) 7.0 (B) 1.04 (C) (D) 2.0 Q.37 Number of possible isomers for the complex [Co(en) 2 Cl 2 ]Cl will be: (en = ethylene diamine) (A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1 Q.38 The variation of the boiling points of the hydrogen halides is in the order HF > HI > HBr > HCl. What explains the higher boiling point of hydrogen fluoride? (A) The bond energy of HF molecules is greater than in other hydrogen halides. (B) The effect of nuclear shielding is much reduced in fluorine which polarizes the HF molecule. (C) The electronegativity of fluorine is much higher than for other elements in the group. (D) There is strong hydrogen bonding between HF molecules. Q.39 What is the mass of the precipitate formed when 50 ml of 16.9% solution of AgNO 3 is mixed with 50 ml of 5.8% NaCl solution? (A) 7 g (B) 14 g (C) 28 g (D) 3.5 g Q.40 The oxidation of benzene by V 2 O 5 in the presence of air produces: (A) Benzoic acid (C) Benzoic anhydride (B) Benzaldehyde (D) Maleic anhydride Q.41 Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of

7 VII Q.43 Method by which Aniline cannot be prepared is: (A) Reduction of nitrobenzene with H 2 /Pd in ethanol. (B) Potassium salt of phthalimide treated with chlorobenzene followed by hydrolysis with aqueous NaOH solution. (C) Hydrolysis of phenylisocyanide with acidic solution (D) Degradation of benzamide with bromine in alkaline solution Q.43 Which of the following reaction(s) can be used for the preparation of alkyl halides? i. Anhyd.ZnCl2 CH3CH2OH+ HCl ii. CH3CH2OH+ HCl iii. (CH 3) 3COH+ HCl iv. (CH 3) 3COH+ HCl (A) IV only (B) III and IV only (C) I, III and IV only (D) I and II only Q.44 Which is the correct order of increasing energy of the listed orbitals in the atom of titanium? (At. No. Z = 22) (A) 3s 3p 3d 4s (B) 3s 3p 4s 3d (C) 3s 4s 3p 3d (D) 4s 3s 3p 3d Q.45 In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is finally obtained by the reduction of cuprous oxide with: (A) Copper (I) sulphide (C) Iron (II) sulphide (B) Sulphur dioxide (D) Carbon monoxide Answer Key Q.1 D Q.2 A Q.3 C Q.4 C Q.5 C Q.6 C Q.7 D Q.8 C Q.9 A Q.10 C Q.11 C Q.12 B Q.13 B Q.14 C Q.15 C Q.16 B Q.17 B Q.18 B Q.19 B Q.20 D Q.21 C Q.22 C Q.23 C Q.24 C Q.25 B Q.26 B Q.27 A Q.28 D Q.29 A Q.30 B Q.31 C Q.32 D Q.33 C Q.34 D Q.35 B Q.36 C Q.37 A Q.38 D Q.39 A Q.40 D Q.41 D Q.42 B Q.43 C Q.44 B Q.45 B