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46 th Canadian Mathematical Olympiad Wednesday, April 2, 204 Problems and Solutions. Let a, a 2,..., a n be positive real numbers whose product is. Show that the sum a a 2 + + a ( + a )( + a 2 ) + a 3 ( + a )( + a 2 )( + a 3 ) + + a n ( + a )( + a 2 ) ( + a n ) is greater than or equal to 2n 2 n. Solution. Note for that every positive integer m, a m ( + a )( + a 2 ) ( + a m ) = = + a m ( + a )( + a 2 ) ( + a m ) ( + a )( + a 2 ) ( + a m ) ( + a ) ( + a m ) ( + a ) ( + a m ). Therefore, if we let b j = ( + a )( + a 2 ) ( + a j ), with b 0 = 0, then by telescoping sums, n a j n ( ( + a ) ( + a j ) = ) =. b j b j b n j= Note that b n = ( + a )( + a 2 ) ( + a n ) (2 a )(2 a 2 ) (2 a n ) = 2 n, with equality if and only if all a i s equal to. Therefore, j= b n 2 n = 2n 2 n. To check that this minimum can be obtained, substituting all a i = to yield as desired. 2 + 2 + 2 2 +... + 3 2 = 2n + 2 n 2 +... + = 2n, n 2 n 2 n

2. Let m and n be odd positive integers. Each square of an m by n board is coloured red or blue. A row is said to be red-dominated if there are more red squares than blue squares in the row. A column is said to be blue-dominated if there are more blue squares than red squares in the column. Determine the maximum possible value of the number of red-dominated rows plus the number of blue-dominated columns. Express your answer in terms of m and n. Solution. The answer is m + n 2 if m, n 3 and max{m, n} if one of m, n is equal to. Note that it is not possible that all rows are red-dominated and all columns are blue-dominated. This is true, since the number of rows and columns are both odd, the number of squares is odd. Hence, there are more squares of one color than the other. Without loss of generality, suppose there are more red squares than blue squares. Then it is not possible that for every column, there are more blue squares than red squares. Hence, every column cannot be blue-dominated. If one of m, n is equal to, say m without loss of generality, then by the claim, the answer is less than n +. The example where there are n blue-dominated columns is by painting every square blue. There are 0 red-dominated rows. The sum of the two is n = max{m, n}. Now we handle the case m, n 3. There are m rows and n columns on the board. Hence, the answer is at most m + n. We have already shown that the answer cannot be m + n. Since m, n are odd, let m = 2a and n = 2b for some positive integers a, b. Since m, n 3, a, b 2. We first show that the answer is not m + n. By symmetry, it suffices to show that we cannot have all rows red-dominated and all-butone column blue-dominated. If all rows are red dominated, then each row has at least b red squares. Hence, there are at least bm = (2a )b red squares. Since all-but-one column is blue-dominated, there are at least 2b 2 blue-dominated columns. Each such column then has at least a blue squares. Therefore, there are at least a(2b 2) blue squares. Therefore, the board has at least (2a )b + a(2b 2) = 4ab b 2a squares. But the total number of squares on the board is (2a )(2b ) = 4ab 2a 2b + = 4ab 2a b b + < 4ab 2a b, which is true since b 2. This is a contradiction. Therefore, the answer is less than m + n.

We now claim that there is a colouring of the board such that the number of bluedominated columns plus the number of red-dominated rows is m + n 2; Colour the first column entirely red, and the first row, minus the top-left corner, entirely blue. The remaining uncoloured square is an even-by-even board. Colour the remaining board in an alternating pattern (i.e. checkerboard pattern). Hence, on this evenby-even board, each row has the same number of red squares as blue squares and each column has the same number of red squares as blue squares. Then on the whole board, since the top row, minus the top-left square is blue, all columns, but the leftmost column, are blue-dominated. Hence, there are n blue-dominated columns. Since the left column is red, all rows but the top row are red dominated. Hence, there are m red-dominated rows. The sum of these two quantities is m + n 2, as desired. 3. Let p be a fixed odd prime. A p-tuple (a, a 2, a 3,..., a p ) of integers is said to be good if (i) 0 a i p for all i, and (ii) a + a 2 + a 3 + + a p is not divisible by p, and (iii) a a 2 + a 2 a 3 + a 3 a 4 + + a p a is divisible by p. Determine the number of good p-tuples. Solution. Let S be the set of all sequences (b, b 2,..., b p ) of numbers from the set {0,, 2,..., p } such that b + b 2 + + b p is not divisible by p. We show that S = p p p p. For let b, b 2,..., b p be an arbitrary sequence of numbers chosen from {0,, 2,..., p }. There are exactly p choices for b p such that b + b 2 + + b p + b p 0 (mod p), and therefore S = p p (p ) = p p p p. Now it will be shown that the number of good sequences in S is S. For a p sequence B = (b, b 2,..., b p ) in S, define the sequence B k = (a, a 2,..., a p ) by a i = b i b + k mod p for i p. Now note that B in S implies that a + a 2 + + a p (b + b 2 + + b p ) pb + pk (b + b 2 + + b p ) 0 (mod p) and therefore B k is in S for all non-negative k. Now note that B k has first element k for all 0 k p and therefore the sequences B 0, B,..., B p are distinct.

Now define the cycle of B as the set {B 0, B,..., B p }. Note that B is in its own cycle since B = B k where k = b. Now note that since every sequence in S is in exactly one cycle, S is the disjoint union of cycles. Now it will be shown that exactly one sequence per cycle is good. Consider an arbitrary cycle B 0, B,..., B p, and let B 0 = (b, b 2,..., b p ) where b 0 = 0, and note that B k = (b + k, b 2 + k,..., b p + k) mod p. Let u = b + b 2 + + b p, and v = b b 2 + b 2 b 3 + + b p b and note that (b + k)(b 2 + k) + (b 2 + k)(b 3 + k)) + + (b p + k)(b + k) = u + 2kv mod p for all 0 k p. Since 2v is not divisible by p, there is exactly one value of k with 0 k p such that p divides u + 2kv and it is exactly for this value of k that B k is good. This shows that exactly one sequence per cycle is good and therefore that the number of good sequences in S is S, which is p pp p p 2. 4. The quadrilateral ABCD is inscribed in a circle. The point P lies in the interior of ABCD, and P AB = P BC = P CD = P DA. The lines AD and BC meet at Q, and the lines AB and CD meet at R. Prove that the lines P Q and P R form the same angle as the diagonals of ABCD. Solution.. Let Γ be the circumcircle of quadrilateral ABCD. Let α = P AB = P BC P CD = P DA and let T, T 2, T 3 and T 4 denote the circumcircles of triangles AP D, BP C, AP B and CP D, respectively. Let M be the intersection of T with line RP and let N be the intersection of T 3 with line SP. Also let X denote the intersection of diagonals AC and BD. By power of a point for circles T and Γ, it follows that RM RP = RA RD = RB RC which implies that the quadrilateral BMP C is cyclic and M lies on T 2. Therefore P MB = P CB = α = P AB = DMP where all angles are directed. This implies that M lies on the diagonal BD and also that XMP = DMP = α. By a symmetric argument applied to S, T 3 and T 4, it follows that N lies on T 4 and that N lies on diagonal AC with XNP = α. Therefore XMP = XNP and X, M, P and N are concyclic. This implies that the angle formed by lines MP and NP is equal to one of the angles formed by lines MX and NX. The fact that M lies on BD and RP and N lies on AC and SP now implies the desired result. 5. Fix positive integers n and k 2. A list of n integers is written in a row on a blackboard. You can choose a contiguous block of integers, and I will either add to all of them or subtract from all of them. You can repeat this step as often as you like, possibly adapting your selections based on what I do. Prove that after a finite number of steps, you can reach a state where at least n k + 2 of the numbers on the blackboard are all simultaneously divisible by k.

Solution. We will think of all numbers as being residues mod k. following strategy: Consider the If there are less than k non-zero numbers, then stop. If the first number is 0, then recursively solve on the remaining numbers. If the first number is j with 0 < j < k, then choose the interval stretching from the first number to the jth-last non-zero number. First note that this strategy is indeed well defined. The first number must have value between 0 and k, and if we do not stop immediately, then there are at least k non-zero numbers, and hence the third step can be performed. For each j with j k 2, we claim the first number can take on the value of j at most a finite number of times without taking on the value of j in between. If this were to fail, then every time the first number became j, I would have to add to the selected numbers to avoid making it j. This will always increase the j-th last non-zero number, and that number will never be changed by other steps. Therefore, that number would eventually become 0, and the next last non-zero number would eventually become zero, and so on, until the first number itself becomes the j-th last non-zero number, at which point we are done since j k 2. Rephrasing slightly, if j k 2, the first number can take on the value of j at most a finite number of times between each time it takes on the value of j. It then immediately follows that if the first number can take on the value of j at most a finite number of times, then it can also only take on the value of j a finite number of times. However, if it ever takes on the value of 0, we have already reduced the problem to n, so we can assume that never happens. It then follows that the first number can take on all the values 0,, 2,..., k 2 at most a finite number of times. Finally, every time the first number takes on the value of k, it must subsequently take on the value of k 2 or 0, and so that can also happen only finitely many times.