Questions 1 14 cover material from Exam 1

1. Which description identifies a liquid? Questions 1 14 cover material from Exam 1 A. no definite shape; definite volume C. definite shape; no definite volume B. no definite shape; no definite volume D. definite shape; definite volume 2. Which state of matter is the most compressible? A. solid C. liquid B. gas D. Solids, liquids and gases are equally compressible. 3. Which of the following represents a chemical change? A. boiling water C. combustion of C 3 H 8 (propane) B. freezing water D. formation of CO 2 (g) from CO 2 (s) 4. A ball at the top of the hill has 342 J of energy and expends 125 J of energy as it rolls down. How much potential energy remains in the system (the ball) at the bottom of the hill? A. 217 J C. 467 J B. 125 J D. 342 J 5. What are the identities of these prefix multipliers? A. 10 9, nano; 10 3, milli; 10 3, kilo; 10 6 mega B. 10 9, mega; 10 3, nano; 10 3, kilo; 10 6 atto C. 10 9, giga; 10 3, nano; 10 3, tera; 10 6 deci D. 10 9, nano; 10 3, kilo; 10 3, micro; 10 6 atto

6. A 12.28 in 3 cube of Xe(s) has a mass of 25.84 oz at 161.4 K and 81.8 kpa. What is the density of solid xenon under these conditions? (1 oz = 28.35 g; 1 in = 2.54 cm) A. 3.640 g/cm 3 C. 10.24 g/cm 3 B. 26.49 g/cm 3 D. 0.4790 g/cm 3 7. What is the result of the following calculation to the correct number of significant figures? (95.124 + 6.325) 0.998750 A. 1.016 10 2 C. 1.01576 10 2 B. 1.0158 10 2 D. 1.015759 10 2 8. Which of the following statements is false according to Dalton s Atomic Theory? A. An atom of Kr can be broken down into smaller particles that have the same unique properties as Kr. B. One carbon atom combines with either one or two oxygen atoms to form two different compounds. C. Atoms combine in simple whole number ratios to form molecular compounds. D. All atoms of chlorine have identical properties that distinguish them from other elements.

9. What information about atomic structure was determined by Millikan s oil drop experiment? A. existence of electrons C. existence of the nucleus B. mass of a proton D. charge of an electron 10. Rutherford s gold-foil experiment is depicted in the figure below. Which of the following statements best describes the implications of the gold-foil experiment? A. The mass of an atom is evenly distributed throughout the atom. B. Electrons have more mass than protons. C. Positive charges are evenly distributed throughout the atom D. Most of an atom s mass is localized in a small core called the nucleus.

11. How many protons, neutrons, and electrons are found in 113 Cd 2+? A. 50 protons, 65 neutrons, 48 electrons C. 65 protons, 48 neutrons, 63 electrons B. 67 protons, 48 neutrons, 65 electrons D. 48 protons, 65 neutrons, 46 electrons 12. The atomic mass of 63 Cu is 62.9296 amu with a natural abundance of 0.692. The average mass of copper is 63.546 amu. What is the mass of copper s other isotope? A. 61.2 amu C. 64.9 amu B. 65.8 amu D. 68.7 amu 13. Which of the following contains the largest number of atoms? A. 3.0 g H C. 75.0 g Pb B. 12.0 g C D. 125 g Cu 14. What is the mass of 2.49 10 25 atoms of 19 F? A. 1.27 10 3 g C. 45.9 g B. 2.18 g D. 786 g

Questions 15 28 cover material from Exam 2 15. What is the empirical formula of C 6 H 12 O 4? A. C 6 H 12 O 4 C. C 3 H 6 O 2 B. CH 2 O D. C 2 H 4 O 16. Which of the following is an ionic compound? A. H 2 O C. SrO B. CH 3 OH D. SiO 2 17. What is the chemical name of CuSO 3? A. copper(i) sulfate C. copper(i) sulfite B. copper(ii) sulfate D. copper(ii) sulfite 18. Calculate the molar mass of Al 2 (CO 3 ) 3. A. 207.01 g/mol C. 113.97 g/mol B. 233.99 g/mol D. 260.97 g/mol 19. How many atoms are in 27.4 g of formaldehyde (CH 2 O, 30.026 g/mol)? A. 2.49 10 25 atoms C. 1.28 10 24 atoms B. 2.20 10 24 atoms D. 3.08 10 23 atoms 20. What is the percent composition by mass of selenium in C 3 H 7 NO 2 Se? A. 6.51% C. 21.4% B. 19.0% D. 47.0%

21. An analysis of a 25.00-g sample of a compound containing carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen showed that it contained 5.00 g C, 11.68 g N, 6.65 g O, and the remainder H. What is the empirical formula of the compound? A. CNOH C. CNOH 2 B. CN 2 OH 2 D. CN 2 OH 4 22. When the equation below is balanced with the lowest possible whole numbers, what is the coefficient of O 2? C 6 H 6 (l) + O 2 (g) CO 2 (g) + H 2 O(g) A. 15 C. 3 B. 6 D. 1 23. Sulfur compounds in eggs tarnish silver according to the balanced chemical equation: 4 Ag(s) + 2 H 2 S(g) + O 2 (g) 2 Ag 2 S(s) + 2 H 2 O(g). If 1.02 mg of H 2 S (34.082 g/mol) comes in contact with 5.45 mg of silver and an excess of oxygen, how much tarnished silver (Ag 2 S, 247.80 g/mol) will result? A. 10.9 mg Ag 2 S C. 2.06 mg Ag 2 S B. 6.26 mg Ag 2 S D. 8.43 mg Ag 2 S

24. A 50.0-mL solution of 0.54 M HCl is diluted to 180 ml. What is the new concentration? A. 0.15 M C. 0.30 M B. 2.1 M D. 1.0 M 25. Which of the following is a redox reaction? A. NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) H 2 O(l) + NaCl(aq) B. Mg(s) + 2 H 2 O(l) Mg(OH) 2 (s) + H 2 (g) C. K 2 CO 3 (aq) + NiCl 2 (aq) 2 KCl(aq) + NiCO 3 (s) D. H 2 SO 4 (aq) + 2 LiOH(aq) Li 2 SO 4 (aq) + 2 H 2 O(l) 26. What pressure is exerted on the walls of a 10.0-L container containing 0.278 mol of N 2 (g) at 50.0 C? A. 0.0973 atm C. 1.29 atm B. 0.681 atm D. 0.737 atm 27. What is the partial pressure of nitrogen in a mixture that contains 10.0 grams each of gaseous nitrogen and oxygen? The total pressure is 0.784 atm. A. 0.418 atm C. 0.532 atm B. 0.356 atm D. 0.366 atm 28. Which of the following statements about ideal gases is false? A. All gas molecules have the same average velocity at the same temperature. B. The gas molecules have negligibly small volumes. C. The collisions of gas molecules with the walls of the container and with each other are completely elastic. D. A gas exhibits most ideal behavior at low pressure and high temperature.

Questions 29 42 cover material from Exam 3 29. Which of the following sentences states the first law of thermodynamics? A. The total energy of the universe is increasing. B. The total energy of the universe is constant. C. The total energy of the universe is decreasing. D. There is only one type of energy. 30. 12.0 kj of heat is supplied to a 150.0-g sample of ethanol initially at 25.0 C. What is the final temperature of the ethanol? The specific heat capacity of ethanol is 2.42 J/g C. A. 21.7 C C. 58.1 C B. 28.3 C D. 35.7 C 31. A 15.0-g piece of lead at 275 C is dropped into 50.0 g of H 2 O at 23.0 C. What is the final temperature of the lead? Assume that no water is lost as steam. C s (Pb) = 0.128 J/g C C s (H 2 O) = 4.18 J/g C A. 36.4 C C. 28.7 C B. 32.5 C D. 25.3 C 32. A reaction takes place in a closed system causing the volume to expand from 3.00 L to 9.00 L against a constant external pressure of 1.5 atm. How much work is done by the system? (101.3 J = 1 atm L) A. 9.12 kj C. 190 kj B. 5.07 kj D. 1.3 kj

33. Which of the following processes is endothermic? A. Freezing of water B. Hot cup of coffee (system) cools on a countertop C. Chemical reaction in a hot pack used to treat sore muscles D. Evaporation of rubbing alcohol 34. What is H rxn for PCl 5 (g) PCl 3 (g) + Cl 2 (g) given the following reactions? P 4 (s) + 6 Cl 2 (g) 4 PCl 3 (g) H = 2439 kj 4 PCl 5 (g) P 4 (s) + 10 Cl 2 (g) H = 3438 kj A. 5877 kj C. 250. kj B. 999 kj D. 999 kj 35. ΔH rxn of the reaction below is 1166.0 kj. Given that ΔH f of H 2 O(l) is 285.8 kj/mol and that ΔH f of NH 3 (g) is 45.9 kj/mol, what is ΔH f of NO(g)? 4 NO(g) + 6 H 2 O(l) 4 NH 3 (g) + 5 O 2 (g) A. 382.8 kj/mol C. 95.7 kj/mol B. 91.3 kj/mol D. 368.2 kj/mol

36. Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum is correctly identified? A. 2 = infrared C. 4 = microwave B. 6 = X-ray D. 3 = ultraviolet 37. An electron initially in the n = 4 orbital of a hydrogen atom transitions to another orbital, emitting a photon with a wavelength of 97 nm. What is the n value for the final orbital of the electron? A. 3 C. 5 B. 2 D. 1 38. Which statement is true about atomic orbitals? A. A plot of the square of an electron s wave function (ψ 2 ) represents the position probability distribution map of the electron in an orbital. B. For a hydrogen atom, the energy of an electron in an orbital is determined by m l, the magnetic quantum number. C. The spatial orientation of an orbital is defined by l, the angular momentum quantum number. D. A single p orbital can hold up to six electrons. 39. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers is allowed? A. n = 1, l = 0, m l = 1, m s = +½ C. n = 3, l = 2, m l = 1, m s = +½ B. n = 2, l = 2, m l = 1, m s = +½ D. n = 2, l = 1, m l = 0, m s = 0

40. Which set of quantum numbers best describes an electron residing in the orbital shown in the two representations below? A. n= 2, l= 1, m l = 1, m s = ½ C. n= 3, l= 3, m l = 1, m s = ½ B. n= 3, l= 2, m l = 2, m s = +½ D. n= 4, l= 0, m l = 1, m s = +¼ 41. How many electrons in an atom can have both quantum numbers n = 3 and m l = 1? A. 2 C. 6 B. 4 D. 8 42. What causes the net charge experienced by the indicated electron to be less than 3+? A. Penetration C. Shielding B. Hund s rule D. Ionization

Questions 43 60 cover material after Exam 3 43. Which of these ions has the ground-state electron configuration [Ar]3d 5? A. Fe 3+ C. Cr 2+ B. V + D. Mn 5+ 44. Which atom s valence electrons experience the greatest effective nuclear charge? A. sodium C. arsenic B. selenium D. bromine 45. In the following isoelectronic series, which species has the largest radius? O 2, F, Ne, Na + A. O 2 C. Ne B. F D. Na + 46. Which pair has the element with the smaller first ionization energy written first? A. Li, Na C. F, Cl B. Si, N D. N, C 47. Which of these atoms has the most exothermic first electron affinity? A. Li(g) C. O(g) B. Be(g) D. Ne(g)

48. Which group contains only covalent compounds? A. H 2 O, CO 2, NaCl C. NaBr, KO 2, TiCl 4 B. ICl 5, SO 2, NH 3 D. MgBr 2, CH 3 OH, SiO 2 49. Which of the following is the Lewis dot symbol for an atom X, where X = arsenic? A. C. B. D. 50. Which of these compounds has the largest lattice energy? A. LiCl C. K 2 O B. NaCl D. CaO 51. Which of the following is the Lewis structure of O 3? A. C. B. D. 52. Which bond is most polar? A. N O C. Si O B. F F D. Br Cl 53. Which of the following is the best Lewis structure for NO 2? A. C. B. D.

54. Which of the following N N bonds is the strongest? A. the N N bond in N 2 (g) B. the N N bond in N 2 H 2 (g) C. the N N bond in N 2 H 4 (g) D. The N N bonds in A C have about the same strengths. 55. In BF 4, what are the (1) electron group geometry around B and (2) molecular geometry? A. (1) trigonal planar, (2) trigonal planar C. (1) trigonal bipyramidal, (2) seesaw B. (1) tetrahedral, (2) tetrahedral D. (1) octahedral, (2) square planar 56. In IBr 4, what are the (1) electron group geometry around I and (2) molecular geometry? A. (1) octahedral, (2) tetrahedral C. (1) square bipyramidal, (2) seesaw B. (1) octahedral, (2) square planar D. (1) tetrahedral, (2) tetrahedral 57. Which of these molecules has a zero net dipole moment? A. OCS C. PF 5 B. BF 2 Cl D. SiF 2 Cl 2 58. What is the hybridization of orbitals on phosphorus in PH 3? A. sp 4 C. sp 2 B. sp 3 D. sp 59. How many sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds are in a CH 2 CHCH 3 molecule? A. 9 σ, 0 π C. 8 σ, 1 π B. 7 σ, 2 π D. 8 σ, 2 π

60. Which diagram shows the molecular orbital energy diagram for N 2? A. C. B. D.

CHE 105 FALL 2013 Final Exam Key 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. A 7. C 8. A 9. D 10. D 11. D 12. C 13. A 14. D 15. C 16. C 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. D 21. D 22. A 23. B 24. A 25. B 26. D 27. A 28. A 29. B 30. C 31. D 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. B 41. B 42. C 43. A

44. D 45. A 46. B 47. C 48. B 49. C 50. D 51. B 52. C 53. D 54. A 55. B 56. B 57. C 58. B 59. C 60. C