c. 6CO2 + 6H2O 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy d. 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy 6O2 + C6H12O6

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AP Biology Pre-Test Name: Date: Points: AP Biology Prior Knowledge Multiple Choice-Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. Organisms, such as plants, that make their own food are called a. autotrophs. c. thylakoids. b. heterotrophs. d. pigments. 2. Organisms that cannot make their own food and must obtain energy from the foods they eat are called a. autotrophs. c. thylakoids. b. heterotrophs. d. plants. 3. What are the three parts of an ATP molecule? a. adenine, thylakoids, stroma c. adenine, ribose, phosphate groups b. stroma, grana, chlorophyll d. NADH, NADPH, and FADH2 4. Photosynthesis uses sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide into a. oxygen. b. high-energy sugars and starches. c. ATP and oxygen. d. oxygen and high-energy sugars and starches. 5. Which of the following is(are) used in the overall reactions for photosynthesis? a. carbon dioxide c. light b. water d. all of the above 6. The Calvin cycle is another name for a. light-independent reactions. c. photosynthesis. b. light-dependent reactions. d. all of the above 7. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration? a. glycolysis fermentation Krebs cycle b. Krebs cycle electron transport glycolysis c. glycolysis Krebs cycle electron transport d. Krebs cycle glycolysis electron transport 8. Cellular respiration uses one molecule of glucose to produce a. 2 ATP molecules. c. 36 ATP molecules. b. 34 ATP molecules. d. 38 ATP molecules. 9. What is the correct equation for cellular respiration? a. 6O2 + C6H12O6 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy b. 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy 6CO2 + 6H2O c. 6CO2 + 6H2O 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy d. 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy 6O2 + C6H12O6

10. Lactic acid fermentation occurs in a. bread dough. c. muscle cells. b. any environment containing oxygen. d. mitochondria. 11. The two main types of fermentation are called a. alcoholic and aerobic. c. alcoholic and lactic acid. b. aerobic and anaerobic. d. lactic acid and anaerobic. 12. Which process is used to produce beer and wine? a. lactic acid fermentation c. alcoholic fermentation b. glycolysis d. the Krebs cycle 13. How are cellular respiration and photosynthesis almost opposite processes? a. Photosynthesis releases energy, and cellular respiration stores energy. b. Photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, and cellular respiration puts it back. c. Photosynthesis removes oxygen from the atmosphere, and cellular respiration puts it back. d. all of the above 14. Photosynthesis is to chloroplasts as cellular respiration is to a. chloroplasts. c. mitochondria. b. cytoplasm. d. nuclei. 15. The process by which a cell divides into two daughter cells is called a. cell division. c. interphase. b. metaphase. d. mitosis. 16. The cell cycle is the a. series of events that cells go through as they grow and divide. b. period of time between the birth and the death of a cell. c. time from prophase until cytokinesis. d. time it takes for one cell to undergo mitosis. 17. The two main stages of cell division are called a. mitosis and interphase. c. the M phase and the S phase. b. synthesis and cytokinesis. d. cytokinesis and mitosis. 18. Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their a. size. c. growth rate. b. spindle fibers. d. surface area. 19. Cancer cells form masses of cells called a. tumors. c. growth factors. b. cyclins. d. p53. 20. Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study a. flowering. c. the inheritance of traits. b. gamete formation. d. cross-pollination.

21. When you flip a coin, what is the probability that it will come up tails? a. 1/2 c. 1/8 b. 1/4 d. 1 22. Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be a. hybrid. c. heterozygous. b. homozygous. d. dominant. Tt T t T TT Tt TT T TT Tt T = Tall t = Short Figure 11 1 23. In the Punnett square shown in Figure 11 1, which of the following is true about the offspring resulting from the cross? a. About half are expected to be short. c. About half are expected to be tall. b. All are expected to be short. d. All are expected to be tall. 24. Situations in which one allele for a gene is not completely dominant over another allele for that gene are called a. multiple alleles. c. polygenic inheritance. b. incomplete dominance. d. multiple genes. 25. A cross of a black chicken (BB) with a white chicken (WW) produces all speckled offspring (BBWW). This type of inheritance is known as a. incomplete dominance. c. codominance. b. polygenic inheritance. d. multiple alleles. 26. Variation in human skin color is an example of a. incomplete dominance. c. polygenic traits. b. codominance. d. multiple alleles. 27. Gregor Mendel s principles of genetics apply to a. plants only. c. pea plants only. b. animals only. d. all organisms.

! 28. Gametes are produced by the process of a. mitosis. c. crossing-over. b. meiosis. d. replication. Figure 12 1 29. Figure 12 1 shows the structure of a(an) a. DNA molecule. c. RNA molecule. b. amino acid. d. protein. 30. In eukaryotes, DNA a. is located in the nucleus. c. is located in the ribosomes. b. floats freely in the cytoplasm. d. is circular. 31. DNA is copied during a process called a. replication. c. transcription. b. translation. d. transformation. 32. RNA contains the sugar a. ribose. c. glucose. b. deoxyribose. d. lactose. 33. Unlike DNA, RNA contains a. adenine. c. phosphate groups. b. uracil. d. thymine. 34. How many main types of RNA are there? a. 1 c. hundreds b. 3 d. thousands 35. Which of the following is NOT a gene mutation? a. inversion c. deletion b. insertion d. substitution 36. The crossing of buffalo and cattle to produce beefalo is an example of a. inbreeding. c. genetic engineering. b. hybridization. d. transformation.

37. How many chromosomes are shown in a normal human karyotype? a. 2 c. 44 b. 23 d. 46 38. In humans, a male has a. one X chromosome only. b. two X chromosomes. c. one X chromosome and one Y chromosome. d. two Y chromosomes. 39. Human females produce egg cells that have a. one X chromosome. c. one X or one Y chromosome. b. two X chromosomes. d. one X and one Y chromosome. 40. In a pedigree, a circle represents a(an) a. male. c. child. b. female. d. adult. 41. A pedigree can be used to a. determine whether a trait is inherited. b. show how a trait is passed from one generation to the next. c. determine whether an allele is dominant or recessive. d. all of the above 42. The Human Genome Project is an attempt to a. make a DNA fingerprint of every person s DNA. b. sequence all human DNA. c. cure human diseases. d. identify alleles in human DNA that are recessive. 43. During his voyage on the Beagle, Charles Darwin made many observations a. in England. c. on the Galápagos Islands. b. in North America. d. in Asia. 44. In 1859, Charles Darwin published his revolutionary scientific ideas in a work titled a. Principles of Geology. b. Essay on the Principle of Population. c. Evolution in Malaysia. d. On the Origin of Species. 45. According to Darwin s theory of natural selection, individuals who survive are the ones best adapted for their environment. Their survival is due to the a. possession of adaptations developed through use. b. possession of inherited adaptations that maximize fitness. c. lack of competition within the species. d. choices made by plant and animal breeders.

46. According to Darwin s theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have a. characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse. b. characteristics that plant and animal breeders value. c. the greatest number of offspring. d. variations best suited to the environment. 47. Darwin s theory of evolution suggests that a. species change over time. b. extinct species are not related to living species. c. different species can interbreed. d. animals that look alike are the most closely related. 48. A change in a sequence of DNA is called a a. recombination. c. single-gene trait. b. polygenic trait. d. mutation. 49. Natural selection acts directly on a. alleles. c. phenotypes. b. genes. d. mutations. 50. The separation of populations by barriers such as rivers, mountains, or bodies of water is called a. temporal isolation. c. behavioral isolation. b. geographic isolation. d. genetic equilibrium. 51. Examples of fossils include preserved a. eggs. c. body parts. b. footprints. d. all of the above 52. After Precambrian Time, the basic divisions of the geologic time scale, from larger to smaller are a. eras and periods. c. relative and absolute dates. b. periods and eras. d. billions of years and millions of years. 53. Earth s most recent era is the a. Paleozoic. c. Cenozoic. b. Mesozoic. d. Precambrian. 54. During the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods, the dominant land animals were a. amphibians. c. grazing mammals. b. dinosaurs. d. human ancestors. 55. The process by which two species, for example, a flower and a pollinating insect, evolve in response to changes in each other over time is called a. convergent evolution. c. coevolution. b. adaptive radiation. d. punctuated equilibrium. 56. In Linnaeus s system of classification, how many taxonomic categories were there? a. one c. five b. three d. seven

57. Which two kingdoms did Linnaeus recognize? a. bacteria and animals c. plants and animals b. plants and fungi d. protists and animals 58. The two domains composed of only unicellular organisms are a. Eubacteria and Archaea. c. Archaea and Bacteria. b. Eukarya and Bacteria. d. Archaea and Eukarya. 59. Which of the following are the correct five kingdoms? a. Yeast, Mushrooms, Plants, Animals, Bacteria b. Plantae, Animalia, Monera, Protista, Fungi c. Eukaryotes, Prokaryotes, Fungi, Animalia, Plantae d. Plantae, Eukarya, Protista, Archae, Bacteria 60. What is the method of classification based on evolutionary relationships called? a. Phylogenetics c. Linnaean Classification b. Evolutionary Biology d. Cladogram

Chemistry Pre-Test 1. Which elements make up approximately 96% of the human body weight? Which elements might account for most of the remaining 4%? These percentages of naturally occurring elements are similar to the percentages of elements found in other organisms. How could you account for the similarity among organisms? 2. Distinguish between the following terms: atom, ion, element, molecule, and compound. 3. The difference between the mass number and the atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of. An atom of phosphorous, P, contains protons, electrons and neutrons. The atomic weight of phosphorous is _. Draw a Bohr diagram and identify the electron configuration of the phosphorous atom. 4. What is the octet rule and how does it affect the chemical behavior of atoms? 5. How do the isotopes of a single element differ from each other? Give an example of a radioactive isotope that can be used as important medical diagnostic tool. 6. The half-life of radium-226 is 1620 years. If a sample of material contains 16 grams of radium-226, how much will it contain in 1620 years? How much will it contain in 3240 years? 7. Discuss the differences between the following types of bonding: ionic, polar covalent and non-polar covalent. List an example of a substance exhibiting each type of bonding. (Be sure to include the role of electronegativity.) 8. What is the role that chemistry plays in understanding the world around us?