Test Bank. for Campbell Biology. Tenth Edition. Reece Urry Cain Wasserman Minorsky Jackson

A01_REEC7295_09_PTB_FM.qxd 12/19/13 10:14 AM Page i Test Bank for Campbell Biology Tenth Edition Reece Urry Cain Wasserman Minorsky Jackson Edward J. Zakisko, Blackburn College Diane Jokinen, Loyola University Chicago Rebecca Orr, Collin College Melissa Fierke, State University of New York, College of Environmental Science and Forestry Boston Columbus Indianapolis New York San Francisco Upper Saddle River Amsterdam Cape Town Dubai London Madrid Milan Munich Paris Montréal Toronto Delhi Mexico City São Paulo Sydney Hong Kong Seoul Singapore Taipei Tokyo

A01_REEC7295_09_PTB_FM.qxd 12/19/13 10:14 AM Page ii Vice President/Editor-in-Chief: Beth Wilbur Senior Acquisitions Editor: Josh Frost Senior Editorial Manager: Ginnie Simione Jutson Editorial Project Editor: Brady Golden Executive Marketing Manager: Lauren Harp Managing Editor, Production: Shannon Tozier Production Project Manager: Jane Brundage Image & Text Permissions Coordinator: Alison Bruckner Manufacturing Buyer: Jeffrey Sargent Composition: S4Carlisle and Tamarack Software, Inc. Cover Design Production: Seventeenth Street Studios Text and Cover Printer: Edwards Brothers Malloy Cover Photo Credit: Martin Turner / Getty Images This work is protected by United States copyright laws and is provided solely for the use of instructors in teaching their courses and assessing student learning. Dissemination or sale of any part of this work (including on the World Wide Web) will destroy the integrity of the work and is not permitted. The work and materials from it should never be made available to students except by instructors using the accompanying text in their classes. All recipients of this work are expected to abide by these restrictions and to honor the intended pedagogical purposes and the needs of other instructors who rely on these materials. ISBN 13: 978-0-321-82371-7 ISBN 10: 0-321-82371-0 Copyright 2014, 2011, 2008. Pearson Education, Inc. All rights reserved. Manufactured in the United States of America. This publication is protected by Copyright, and permission should be obtained from the publisher prior to any prohibited reproduction, storage in a retrieval system, or transmission in any form or by any means, electronic, mechanical, photocopying, recording, or likewise. To obtain permission(s) to use material from this work, please submit a written request to Pearson Education, Inc., Permissions Department, 1900 E. Lake Ave., Glenview, IL 60025. For information regarding permissions, call (847) 486-2635. Many of the designations used by manufacturers and sellers to distinguish their products are claimed as trademarks. Where those designations appear in this book, and the publisher was aware of a trademark claim, the designations have been printed in initial caps or all caps. www.pearsonhighered.com 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 EBM 17 16 15 14 13 # 100438 C t A H it P N ii K Sh / N l DESIGN SERVICES OF

A01_REEC7295_09_PTB_FM.qxd 12/19/13 10:14 AM Page iii Preface Welcome to the Test Bank for the tenth edition of Campbell Biology. What you will find is a thoroughly revised collection of questions based on the strong foundation established in the nine previous editions. Each member of the Test Bank team, along with editors, has reviewed each question carefully to ensure that the content and terminology of that question accurately reflects the material in the new edition of the text. We hope that you will find ample questions from which to choose in compiling your tests and assignments. We also hope that you will be guided by the assignment of skill levels. The Test-Your-Understanding multiple-choice questions found in the review section of each textbook chapter have also been included in the Test. We tried to classify each question according to the complexity of the mental processes involved. The model we used is modified from Bloom, Benjamin et al., Taxonomy of Educational Objectives: The Classification of Educational Goals, Handbook I: Cognitive Domain. New York: Longmans, Green, 1956. The categories in the cognitive domain that we used to classify questions are Level 1: Knowledge/Comprehension Recognizing or recalling information; understanding of facts and ideas by organizing, comparing, contrasting, translating, and interpreting; giving descriptions; explaining and stating main ideas; using information to deduce a best answer. Level 2: Application/Analysis Applying previously learned information in new situations to answer questions that have single or best answers; examining and breaking information into parts by identifying motives or causes; making inferences and finding evidence to support generalizations; applying knowledge to new situations; interpreting data; finding connections from one chapter to another. Level 3: Synthesis/Evaluation Compiling information in a different way by combining elements in a new pattern or proposing alternative solutions; making judgments about information, validity of ideas, or quality of work based on internal evidence or a set of criteria. We recognize that you may interpret our classifications of the questions differently; therefore, these classifications should be considered only as a rough guide to the knowledge and skills required for answering each question. Preface Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. iii # 100438 C t A H it P N iii K Sh / N l DESIGN SERVICES OF

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A01_REEC7295_09_PTB_FM.qxd 12/19/13 10:14 AM Page v Acknowledgments The questions in the tenth edition of the Test Bank are built upon questions authored by others. We are grateful to the following biologists who have contributed questions to previous editions of the Test Bank (edition numbers are shown in parentheses): William Barstow, University of Georgia (2, 3, 6, 7, 8); Neil Campbell, UC Riverside (3); Angela Cunningham, Baylor University (5); Michael Dini, Texas Tech University (6, 7, 8, 9); Jean DeSaix, University of North Carolina (7, 8); Richard Dohrkopf, Baylor University (4, 5); Gary Fabris, Red Deer College (4); Eugene Fenster, Longview Community College (6); Conrad Firling, University of Minnesota (6, 7); Peter Follette, Science Writer (7); Mark Hens, University of North Carolina (7); Frank Heppner, University of Rhode Island (1); Walter MacDonald, Trenton State University (2); Janice Moore, Colorado State University (7); Thomas Owens, Cornell University (7); Rebecca Pyles, East Tennessee State University (4); Kurt Redborg, Coe College (4, 5, 6); Marc Snyder, Colorado College (5); Richard Storey, The Colorado College (4, 5); Marshall Sundberg, Emporia State University (6, 7); Martha Taylor, Cornell University (3); Margaret Waterman, Harvard Medical School (3); Dan Wivagg, Baylor University (3, 4, 5); Catherine Wilcoxson Ueckert, Northern Arizona University (5, 6); Betty Ann Wonderly, J. J. Pearce High School (3); Robert Yost, Indiana State University Purdue University (6, 7); Edward Zalisko, Blackburn College (7); Louise Paquin, McDaniel College (8, 9); John Zarnetske, Hoosick Falls Central School (8, 9); John Lepri, University of North Carolina, Greensboro (8, 9); C.O. Patterson, Texas A&M University (8); Ronald Balsamo, Villanova University (9); Jung Choi, Georgia Institute of Technology (9) We would like to thank Edzard J. Zalisko, Diane Jokinen, Rebecca Orr, and Melissa Fierke for their work on the tenth edition of the Test Bank. The authors wish to thank Beth Wilbur, vice president and editor-in-chief for Pearson, and Josh Frost, senior acquisitions editor for Pearson, for assembling and supporting the work of our writing team. Also Brady Golden, supplements project editor, for his immense help in coordinating the entire project. Thanks also to Jane Brundage, production project manager at Pearson Benjamin Cummings; and Denise Covelli, David Blazina and the staff at Tamarack for their expertise and hard work on the production side of the project. Josh Frost Senior Acquisitions Editor Pearson Education Acknowledgments Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. v # 100438 C t A H it P N K Sh / N l DESIGN SERVICES OF

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A01_REEC7295_09_PTB_FM.qxd 12/19/13 10:14 AM Page vii Contents Chapter 1 Evolution, the Themes of Biology, and Scientific Inquiry 1 Chapter 2 The Chemical Context of Life 12 Chapter 3 Water and Life 27 Chapter 4 Carbon and the Molecular Diversity of Life 41 Chapter 5 The Structure and Function of Large Biological Molecules 56 Chapter 6 A Tour of the Cell 72 Chapter 7 Membrane Structure and Function 86 Chapter 8 An Introduction to Metabolism 103 Chapter 9 Cellular Respiration and Fermentation 121 Chapter 10 Photosynthesis 136 Chapter 11 Cell Communication 153 Chapter 12 The Cell Cycle 168 Chapter 13 Meiosis and Sexual Life Cycles 184 Chapter 14 Mendel and the Gene Idea 199 Chapter 15 The Chromosomal Basis of Inheritance 216 Chapter 16 The Molecular Basis of Inheritance 232 Chapter 17 Gene Expression: From Gene to Protein 247 Chapter 18 Regulation of Gene Expression 263 Chapter 19 Viruses 276 Chapter 20 DNA Tools and Biotechnology 291 Chapter 21 Genomes and Their Evolution 306 Chapter 22 Descent with Modification: A Darwinian View of Life 317 Chapter 23 The Evolution of Populations 335 Chapter 24 The Origin of Species 355 Contents Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. vii # 100438 C t A H it P N ii K Sh / N l DESIGN SERVICES OF

A01_REEC7295_09_PTB_FM.qxd 12/19/13 10:14 AM Page viii Chapter 25 The History of Life on Earth 375 Chapter 26 Phylogeny and the Tree of Life 398 Chapter 27 Bacteria and Archaea 422 Chapter 28 Protists 445 Chapter 29 Plant Diversity I: How Plants Colonized Land 463 Chapter 30 Plant Diversity II: The Evolution of Seed Plants 479 Chapter 31 Fungi 498 Chapter 32 An Overview of Animal Diversity 521 Chapter 33 An Introduction to Invertebrates 542 Chapter 34 The Origin and Evolution of Vertebrates 561 Chapter 35 Plant Structure, Growth, and Development 578 Chapter 36 Resource Acquisition and Transport in Vascular Plants 593 Chapter 37 Soil and Plant Nutrition 605 Chapter 38 Angiosperm Reproduction and Biotechnology 615 Chapter 39 Plant Responses to Internal and External Signals 629 Chapter 40 Basic Principles of Animal Form and Function 642 Chapter 41 Animal Nutrition 657 Chapter 42 Circulation and Gas Exchange 672 Chapter 43 The Immune System 686 Chapter 44 Osmoregulation and Excretion 701 Chapter 45 Hormones and the Endocrine System 716 Chapter 46 Animal Reproduction 730 Chapter 47 Animal Development 747 Chapter 48 Neurons, Synapses, and Signaling 760 Chapter 49 Nervous Systems 774 Chapter 50 Sensory and Motor Mechanisms 787 viii Contents Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. # 100438 C t A H it P N iii K Sh / N l DESIGN SERVICES OF

A01_REEC7295_09_PTB_FM.qxd 12/19/13 10:14 AM Page ix Chapter 51 Animal Behavior 801 Chapter 52 An Introduction to Ecology and the Biosphere 821 Chapter 53 Population Ecology 839 Chapter 54 Community Ecology 867 Chapter 55 Ecosystems and Restoration Ecology 886 Chapter 56 Conservation Biology and Global Change 906 Contents Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. ix # 100438 C t A H it P N i K Sh / N l DESIGN SERVICES OF

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Chapter 1 Evolution, the Themes of Biology, and Scientific Inquiry 1) Cells are. A) only found in pairs, because single cells cannot exist independently B) limited in size to 200 and 500 micrometers in diameter C) characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms D) characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms Answer: D Section: 1.1 2) In comparison to eukaryotes, prokaryotes. A) are more structurally complex B) are larger C) are smaller D) do not have membranes Section: 1.1 3) Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic material but do not have their DNA encased within a nuclear envelope? A) animal B) plant C) archaean D) fungi Section: 1.1 4) To understand the chemical basis of inheritance, we must understand the molecular structure of DNA. This is an example of the application of which concept to the study of biology? A) evolution B) emergent properties C) reductionism D) feedback regulation Section: 1.1 Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. 1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry 1

5) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a. A) community B) population C) ecosystem D) family Answer: B Section: 1.1 6) Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the complexity of biological systems? A) An understanding of the interactions between different components within a living system is a key goal of a systems biology approach to understanding biological complexity. B) Knowing the function of a component of a living system can provide insight into its structure and organization. C) Understanding the chemical structure of DNA reveals how it directs the functioning of a living cell. D) An ecosystem displays complex properties not present in the individual communities within it. Section: 1.1 7) When a person gets dehydrated while exercising on a hot day, their pituitary gland releases ADH, a hormone that signals the kidneys to retain more water. This is an example of A) Positive feedback regulation B) Negative feedback regulation C) Chemical cycling D) Emergent properties Answer: B Section: 1.1 8) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains? A) Bacteria and Eukarya B) Archaea and Monera C) Bacteria and Protista D) Bacteria and Archaea Answer: D Section: 1.2 2 1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life? A) near universality of the genetic code B) structure of the nucleus C) structure of cilia D) structure of chloroplasts Answer: A Section: 1.2 10) Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying of organisms? A) informatics B) taxonomy C) genomics D) evolution Answer: B Section: 1.2 11) The phylogenetic tree below. A) depicts the three major domains of life B) includes unicellular but not multicellular life C) includes unicellular and some forms of multicellular life, but not complex animals and plants D) includes noncellular life forms Answer: A Section: 1.2 Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. 1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry 3

12) In the diagram below, ʺAʺ is ; ʺBʺ is. A) the most recent species to evolve on Earth; an ancestor of group ʺAʺ B) the most recent species to evolve on Earth; the last common ancestor of Archaea and Eukarya C) the common ancestor of all life; the common ancestor of Bacteria and Archaea D) the common ancestor of all life; the last common ancestor of Archaea and Eukarya Answer: D Section: 1.2 13) You find yourself standing next to a beautiful rose bush. Which of the following do you and the rose have in common? A) You both are multicellular. B) You both lack a membrane bound nucleus. C) You are both prokaryotic. D) You and the rose have nothing in common. Answer: A Section: 1.2 14) Which of the following is (are) true of natural selection? A) It requires genetic variation. B) It results in descent with modification. C) It involves differential reproductive success. D) It requires genetic variation, results in descent with modification, and involves differential reproductive success. Answer: D Section: 1.2 15) Charles Darwin proposed a mechanism for descent with modification that stated that organisms of a particular species are adapted to their environment when they possess. A) non heritable traits that enhance their survival in the local environment B) non heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local environment C) heritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local environment D) heritable traits that decrease their survival and reproductive success in the local environment Section: 1.2 4 1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Which of the following best describes what occurred after the publication of Charles Darwinʹs On the Origin of Species? A) The publisher was pressured to cease distribution. B) The book was banned from schools. C) The book was widely discussed and disseminated. D) The book was discredited by most scientists. Section: 1.2 17) Darwinʹs finches, collected from the Galápagos Islands, illustrate which of the following? A) mutation frequency B) ancestors from different regions C) adaptive radiation D) vestigial anatomical structures E) the accuracy of the fossil record Section: 1.2 18) Cotton-topped tamarins are small primates with tufts of long white hair on their heads. While studying these creatures, you notice that males with longer hair get more opportunities to mate and father more offspring. To test the hypothesis that having longer hair is adaptive in these males, you should. A) test whether other traits in these males are also adaptive B) look for evidence of hair in ancestors of tamarins C) determine if hair length is heritable D) test whether males with shaved heads are still able to mate Section: 1.2 Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. 1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry 5

The following experiment is used for the corresponding question(s). A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two distinct times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer when flowering is past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look like oak flowers. But caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak twigs. How does the same population of moths produce such different looking caterpillars on the same trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same population and collected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical cups. The eggs hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the four temperature and light conditions listed below. In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the other oak leaves. Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments 2 diets). 19) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which one of the following is NOT a plausible hypothesis to explain the differences in caterpillar appearance observed in this population? A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig like caterpillars. B) The cooler temperatures of spring trigger the development of flowerlike caterpillars. C) Differences in air pressure, due to differences in elevation, trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. D) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. 6 1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) Refer to the accompanying figure. In every case, caterpillars that feed on oak flowers look like oak flowers. In every case, caterpillars that were raised on oak leaves looked like twigs. These results support which of the following hypotheses? A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig like caterpillars. B) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. C) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. D) The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars or all twig like caterpillars. 21) Refer to the accompanying figure. Recall that eggs from the same female were exposed to each of the eight treatments used. This aspect of the experimental design tested which of the following hypotheses? A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig like caterpillars. B) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. C) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars. D) The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars or all twig like caterpillars. Answer: D 22) Recall the caterpillar experiment in which caterpillars born in the spring looked like flowers, and caterpillars born in the summer looked like twigs. What is the most likely selective advantage for this difference in body shape? A) Looking like their food sources allows the caterpillars to move through their environment more efficiently. B) Development into the adult moth form is faster for caterpillars shaped like twigs than like flowers. C) Looking like their food source lets the caterpillars blend into their surroundings, reducing predation. D) Looking like their food source will increase the caterpillarsʹ feeding efficiency; this would increase their growth rate and survival rate. 23) How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis? A) Theories are proposed to test scientific hypotheses. B) Theories are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; hypotheses typically address more specific issues. C) Hypotheses are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; theories typically address more specific issues. D) Confirmed theories become scientific laws; hypotheses become theories. Answer: B Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. 1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry 7

24) A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning. He asks for your help. You say that you think the battery must be dead. If so, then jump starting the car from a good battery will solve the problem. In doing so, you are. A) testing a theory for why the car will not start B) making observations to inspire a theory for why the car will not start C) stating a hypothesis and using that hypothesis to make a testable prediction D) comparing multiple hypotheses for why the car will not start 25) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You are asked to determine how long a plant must be exposed to these bacteria to become infected. Which of the following experiments will provide the best data to address that question? A) Determine the survival rate of Agrobacterium when exposed to different concentrations of an antibiotic. B) Measure the number of tumors formed on a plant when exposed to various concentrations of Agrobacterium. C) Measure the concentration of Agrobacterium in different soil environments where the plants grow. D) Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed to Agrobacterium for different lengths of time. Answer: D 26) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You determine that tumor formation requires a large amount of the plantʹs energy for tissue formation. How might this change the number of offspring a plant produces, and what is the most likely explanation for this change? A) The number of offspring should increase, because in general, illness increases the reproductive output of organisms. B) The number of offspring should increase, because the bacteria will provide energy for the plant. C) The number of offspring should decrease, because the plant will divert energy from reproduction to tumor formation. D) There should be no effect of infection on offspring production because energy for reproduction is independent of infection. 8 1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.

Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s). In 1668, Francesco Redi performed a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: Instead of sealing four of the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze excluded the flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat. 27) Refer to the paragraph on Rediʹs experiments. What hypothesis was being tested in the initial experiment with open versus sealed jars? A) Spontaneous generation is more likely during the long days of summer. B) The type of meat used affects the likelihood of spontaneous generation. C) Maggots do not arise spontaneously, but from eggs laid by adult flies. D) Spontaneous generation can occur only if meat is exposed to air. 28) Refer to the paragraph on Rediʹs experiments. In both experiments, flies appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is correct? A) The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat. B) The experiment was inconclusive because it did not run long enough. C) The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat. D) The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies. Answer: D 29) The best experimental design. A) includes a large sample size for each condition B) includes a control C) alters only one condition between the controls and the experimental condition D) includes a large sample size and a control, and alters only one condition between the controls and the experimental condition Answer: D 30) In the process of science, which of these is tested? A) a result B) an observation C) a hypothesis D) a control group Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. 1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry 9

31) A controlled experiment. A) is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate B) includes at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment C) includes at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables D) includes one group for which the scientist controls all variables Answer: B 32) Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific hypothesis? I. It is testable. II. It is falsifiable. III. It produces quantitative data. IV. It produces results that can be replicated. A) I only B) III only C) I and II D) III and IV 33) In presenting data that result from an experiment, a group of students show that most of their measurements fall on a straight diagonal line on their graph. However, two of their data points are ʺoutliersʺ and fall far to one side of the expected relationship. What should they do? A) Do not show these points because clearly something went wrong in the experiment. B) Average several trials, rule out the improbable results, and do not show them in the final work. C) Show all results obtained and then try to explore the reason(s) for these outliers. D) Change the details of the experiment until they can obtain the expected results. Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation 34) Which of the following is the best description of a control for an experiment? A) The control group is kept in an unchanging environment. B) The control group is matched with the experimental group except for one experimental variable. C) The control group is exposed to only one variable rather than several. D) Only the experimental group is tested or measured. Answer: B 10 1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) Which of these is an example of inductive reasoning? A) Hundreds of individuals of a species have been observed and all are photosynthetic; therefore, the species is photosynthetic. B) These organisms live in sunny regions. Therefore, they are using photosynthesis. C) If protists are all single celled, then they are incapable of aggregating. D) If two species are members of the same genus, they are more alike than each of them could be to a different genus. Answer: A 36) The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is known as. A) technology B) deductive science C) inductive science D) pure science Answer: A Section: 1.4 37) Which of the following best describes a model organism? A) It is often pictured in textbooks and easy for students to imagine. B) It is well studied, it is easy to grow, and results are widely applicable. C) It is small, inexpensive to raise, and lives a long time. D) It has been chosen for study by early biologists. Answer: B Section: 1.4 38) Why is a scientific topic best discussed by people of varying points of view, from different subdisciplines, and representing diverse cultures? A) Robust and critical discussion between diverse groups improves scientific thinking. B) Scientists can coordinate with others to conduct experiments in similar ways. C) This is a way of ensuring that everyone gets the same results. D) People need to exchange their ideas with other disciplines and cultures because everyone has a right to an opinion in science. Answer: A Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation Section: 1.4 Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. 1, Evolution, the Themes of Biology & Scientific Inquiry 11

Chapter 2 The Chemical Context of Life 1) About twenty-five of the ninety-two natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these twenty-five elements make up approximately 96 percent of living matter? A) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen B) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen C) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen Answer: D Section: 2.1 2) Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of the following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates, but not by other organisms such as bacteria or plants? A) calcium B) iodine C) sodium D) phosphorus Answer: B Section: 2.1 3) Which of the following statements is FALSE? A) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen are the most abundant elements of living matter. B) Some naturally occurring elements are toxic to organisms. C) All life requires the same essential elements. D) Iron is needed by all humans. Section: 2.1 4) Which of the following are compounds? A) H2O, O2, and CH4 B) H2O and O2 C) O2 and CH4 D) H2O and CH4, but not O2 Answer: D Section: 2.1 12 2, The Chemical Context of Life Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Knowing the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following? A) the number of electrons in the element B) the number of protons in the element C) the number of protons plus neutrons in the element D) the number of protons plus electrons in the element 6) In what way are elements in the same column of the periodic table the same? They have the same number of. A) protons B) electrons when neutral C) electrons in their valence shells when neutral D) electron shells when neutral 7) Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist, with mass numbers from 92-100. Therefore, which of the following can be true? A) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons. B) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 protons. C) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 electrons. D) Isotopes of molybdenum have different numbers of electrons. Answer: A 8) Carbon 12 is the most common isotope of carbon and has a mass number of 12. However, the average atomic mass of carbon found on a periodic table is slightly more than 12 daltons. Why? A) The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons. B) Some carbon atoms in nature have an extra proton. C) Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons. D) Some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution. Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. 2, The Chemical Context of Life 13

9) Which of the following best describes the relationship between the atoms described below? Atom 1 Atom 2 1 1 H 3 1 H A) They are isomers. B) They are isotopes. C) They contain 1 and 3 protons, respectively. D) They each contain only 1 neutron. Answer: B 10) The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen 15 has a greater mass number than nitrogen 14 because the atomic nucleus of nitrogen 15 contains. A) 7 neutrons B) 8 neutrons C) 8 protons D) 15 protons Answer: B 11) From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has. A) 5 neutrons, 5 protons, and 5 electrons B) 15 neutrons and 15 protons C) 8 electrons in its outermost electron shell D) 15 protons and 15 electrons Answer: D 12) Fluorine has an atomic number of 9. Which of the following would you do to a neutral fluorine atom to complete its valence shell? A) add 1 electron B) add 2 electrons C) remove 1 electron D) Nothing. If fluorine is neutral, it has a complete valance shell. Answer: A 14 2, The Chemical Context of Life Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) Magnesium has an atomic number of 12. What is the most stable charge for a magnesium ion? A) a +1 charge B) a +2 charge C) a 1 charge D) a 2 charge Answer: B Refer to the following figure to answer the questions below. 14) Refer to the figure above (first three rows of the periodic table). What element has properties most similar to carbon? A) boron B) silicon C) nitrogen D) phosphorus Answer: B Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. 2, The Chemical Context of Life 15

15) How many neutrons are present in the nucleus of a phosphorus 32 (32P) atom (see the figure above)? A) 15 B) 16 C) 17 D) 32 16) How many electrons will a single atom of sulfur with no charge and no bonds have in its valence shell (see the figure above)? A) 6 B) 8 C) 16 D) 32 Answer: A 17) Based on electron configuration, which of the elements in the figure above would exhibit a chemical behavior most like that of oxygen? A) carbon B) nitrogen C) sulfur D) phosphorus 16 2, The Chemical Context of Life Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form a cation with a charge of +1? A) B) C) D) Answer: A Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. 2, The Chemical Context of Life 17

19) Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form an anion with a charge of 1? A) B) C) D) Answer: D 20) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and most commonly, a mass number of 16. Thus, what is the atomic mass of an oxygen atom? A) approximately 8 grams B) approximately 8 daltons C) approximately 16 grams D) approximately 16 daltons Answer: D 18 2, The Chemical Context of Life Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.

21) If you change the number of neutrons in an atom, you create. A) a cation B) an anion C) an isotope D) a different element 22) Can the atomic mass of an element vary? A) No, it is fixed. If it changes at all then you have formed a different element. B) Yes. Adding or losing electrons will substantially change the atomic mass. C) Yes. Adding or losing protons will change the atomic mass without forming a different element. D) Yes. Adding or losing neutrons will change the atomic mass without forming a different element. Answer: D 23) Which of the following is the best description of an atomʹs physical structure? A) An atom is a solid mass of material. B) The particles that form an atom are equidistant from each other. C) Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated at the center of the bubble. D) Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated on the outside surface of the bubble. 24) A salamander relies on hydrogen bonding to stick to various surfaces. Therefore, a salamander would have the greatest difficulty clinging to a. A) slightly damp surface B) surface of hydrocarbons C) surface of mostly carbon oxygen bonds D) surface of mostly carbon nitrogen bonds Answer: B Bloomʹs Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation Section: 2.3 Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc. 2, The Chemical Context of Life 19

25) A covalent chemical bond is one in which. A) electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms become oppositely charged B) protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms C) outer shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill their respective orbitals D) outer shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another atom Section: 2.3 26) What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that an oxygen atom with atomic number 8 can make with hydrogen? A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 6 Answer: B Section: 2.3 27) Nitrogen (N) is more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following is a correct statement about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)? A) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a partial negative charge. B) Ammonia has an overall positive charge. C) Ammonia has an overall negative charge. D) The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a partial negative charge. Answer: A Section: 2.3 28) Bonds between two atoms that are equally electronegative are. A) hydrogen bonds B) polar covalent bonds C) nonpolar covalent bonds D) ionic bonds Section: 2.3 20 2, The Chemical Context of Life Copyright 2014 Pearson Education, Inc.