1. The Earth is slightly flattened from a perfect spherical shape because of A) its rotation B) the pull of the sun and moon C) storms on the sun's surface D) its molten core 2. The Earth's actual shape is most correctly described as A) a circle B) a perfect sphere C) an oblate sphere D) an eccentric ellipse 3. In which atmospheric temperature zone does most precipitation occur? A) thermosphere B) mesosphere C) stratosphere D) troposphere 4. In which two Earth regions is oxygen the second most abundant element by volume? A) crust and hydrosphere B) hydrosphere and troposphere C) troposphere and core D) core and crust 5. Compared to the oceanic crust, the continental crust is A) less dense and more basaltic B) less dense and more felsic C) more dense and more granitic D) more dense and more mafic 6. Near which two latitudes are most of Earth's dry climate regions found? A) 0 and 60 N B) 0 and 30 S C) 30 N and 60 N D) 30 N and 30 S 7. Which New York State city is located at 42 39' N 73 45' W? A) Buffalo B) Albany C) Ithaca D) Plattsburgh 8. What is the approximate altitude of Polaris at Syracuse, New York? A) 43 B) 47 C) 76 D) 90º 9. The spinning of Earth on its axis causes the apparent rising and setting of the A) Sun, only B) Sun and the Moon, only C) Moon and some stars, only D) Sun, the Moon, and some stars 10. Base your answer to the following question on the latitude and longitude system shown below. The map represents a part of the Earth's surface and its latitude-longitude coordinates. Points A through F represent locations in this area. As a person travels from location B to location E the observed altitude of Polaris will A) decrease B) increase C) remain the same 11. In order to describe the apparent daily motion of stars, a person must observe the A) locations of several stars at the same time B) brightness of several stars over a period of time C) position of one particular star at one particular time D) position of one star relative to the horizon over a period of time 12. In the Northern Hemisphere, planetary winds are deflected to the right due to the A) Doppler effect B) Coriolis effect C) tilt of Earth's axis D) uneven heating of Earth's surface
13. Planetary winds and ocean currents are deflected to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere due to A) seasonal changes B) plate tectonics C) the Doppler effect D) the Coriolis effect 14. Which statement best describes Earth s approximate rates of rotation and revolution? A) Earth s rotation rate is 15 /hour and its revolution rate is 1 /day. B) Earth s rotation rate is 1 /hour and its revolution rate is 15 /day. C) Earth s rotation rate is 24 /hour and its revolution rate is 360 /day. D) Earth s rotation rate is 360 /hour and its revolution rate is 24 /day. 15. Ozone is important to life on Earth because ozone A) cools refrigerators and air-conditioners B) absorbs energy that is reradiated by Earth C) absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation D) destroys excess atmospheric carbon dioxide 16. Ozone gas in the Earth's atmosphere helps to protect life on the Earth. This protection is due to the ability of ozone to absorb A) radio waves B) ultraviolet radiation C) gamma radiation D) visible light 17. Compared to a light-colored rock with a smooth surface, a dark-colored rock with a rough surface will A) both absorb and reflect less insolation B) both absorb and reflect more insolation C) absorb less insolation and reflect more insolation D) absorb more insolation and reflect less insolation 18. Most insolation striking a smooth, light-colored, solid surface is A) refracted B) transmitted C) reflected D) absorbed 19. Which factor has the greatest influence on the number of daylight hours that a particular Earth surface location receives? A) longitude B) latitude C) diameter of Earth D) distance from the Sun 20. What best explains why, in early spring, ice remains longer on Lake Erie than on the surrounding land areas when the air temperature is above freezing? A) Water has a higher specific heat than land. B) Energy is needed for water to evaporate. C) Cool winds from the surrounding land cool the ice on the lake. D) Air temperature does not affect water temperature. 21. Which color of the visible light has the shortest wavelength? A) violet B) green C) yellow D) red 22. Which weather change is most likely indicated by rapidly falling air pressure? A) Humidity is decreasing. B) Temperature is decreasing. C) Skies are clearing. D) A storm is approaching. 23. An observer measured the air temperature and the dewpoint and found the difference between them to be 12 C. One hour later, the difference between the air temperature and the dewpoint was found to be 4 C. Which statement best describes the changes that were occurring? A) The relative humidity was decreasing and the chance of precipitation was decreasing. B) The relative humidity was decreasing and the chance of precipitation was increasing. C) The relative humidity was increasing and the chance of precipitation was decreasing. D) The relative humidity was increasing and the chance of precipitation was increasing.
24. What is the relative humidity when the dry-bulb temperature is 16 C and the wet-bulb temperature is 14 C? A) 90% B) 80% C) 14% D) 13% 25. Which two processes lead to cloud formation in rising air? A) compressing and cooling B) compressing and warming C) expanding and cooling D) expanding and warming 26. Base your answer to the following question on the water cycle diagram shown below. Some arrows are numbered 1 through 4 and represent various processes. The clouds have formed primarily because moist air A) rises, expands, and cools B) rises, expands, and warms C) sinks, compresses, and cools D) sinks, compresses, and warms 27. The air above a burning candle is heated and rises. Which table correctly identifies the type of heat transfer within the rising air and the change in air density above the burning candle? A) B) C) D)
28. On a day with no wind, the air temperature outside a house is 10 C. The air temperature inside the house in 18 C. Which diagram best represents the air circulation pattern that is most likely to occur when a window of the house is first opened? A) B) C) D)
29. The cross sections below show different patterns of air movement in Earth's atmosphere. Air temperatures at Earth's surface are indicated in each cross section. Which cross section shows the most likely pattern of air movement in Earth's atmosphere that would result from the surface air temperatures shown? A) B) C) D) 30. A psychrometer is used to determine which weather variables? A) wind speed and wind direction B) percentage of cloud cover and cloud height C) air pressure and air temperature D) relative humidity and dewpoint
31. The chart below shows the air temperature and the dewpoint temperature near the ground at a given location for four consecutive days. All temperatures were recorded at noon. 36. The arrows on the map below show the prevailing winds at a midlatitude coastal city. Which statement is best supported by the data? A) Relative humidity was highest on day 1. B) The greatest amount of water vapor was in the atmosphere on day 2. C) The base level for cloud formation was highest on day 3. D) The chance of precipitation was greatest on day 4. 32. An air mass classified as ct usually forms over which type of Earth surface? A) cool water B) cool land C) warm water D) warm land 33. The properties of an air mass are mostly determined by the A) rate of Earth s rotation B) direction of Earth s surface winds C) source region where the air mass formed D) path the air mass follows along a land surface 34. Which geographic area is a common source region for cp air masses that move into New Jersey? A) southwestern United States B) central Canada C) the north Pacific Ocean D) the Gulf of Mexico 35. Which ocean current directly warms Western Europe? A) North Atlantic Current B) South Equatorial Current C) Canary Current D) Labrador Current This city most likely has a climate that is A) arid, with a small difference between the highest and lowest yearly temperatures B) arid, with a large difference between the highest and lowest yearly temperatures C) humid, with a small difference between the highest and lowest yearly temperatures D) humid, with a large difference between the highest and lowest yearly temperatures
37. Which weather map symbol is used to represent violently rotating winds that have the appearance of the funnel-shape cloud? A) B) C) D) 38. Which type of air mass most likely has high humidity and high temperature? A) cp B) ct C) mt D) mp 39. The weather map below shows a portion of a low-pressure system. Which front will most likely pass over location A during the next two hours'? A) warm B) stationary C) occluded D) cold
40. Which map best shows the general surface wind pattern in a low-pressure system located over the eastern United States? A) B) C) D)
Base your answers to questions 41 through 43 on the weather map below, which shows a high-pressure center (H) and a low-pressure center (L), with two fronts extending from the low-pressure center. Points X and Y are locations on the map connected by a reference line. 41. Which map best shows the most probable areas of precipitation associated with these weather systems? A)
B) C) D)
42. Which cross section best represents the fronts and air movements in the lower atmosphere along line XY? A) B) C) D) 43. Which type of front is located between Buffalo and Detroit? A) stationary B) warm C) occluded D) cold 44. Compared to the size and density of Earth, the Moon has a A) smaller diameter and lower density B) smaller diameter and higher density C) larger diameter and lower density D) larger diameter and higher density 45. Which two characteristics do all Jovian planets have in common? A) small diameters and low densities B) small diameters and high densities C) large diameters and low densities D) large diameters and high densities 46. The terrestrial planets differ from the Jovian planets because the terrestrial planets are A) less dense and larger B) less dense and smaller C) more dense and larger D) more dense and smaller
47. Which mineral is mined for its iron content? A) hematite B) fluorite C) galena D) talc 48. The diagram below shows the index minerals of Mohs hardness scale compared with the hardness of some common objects. Which statement is best supported by the diagram? A) A fingernail will scratch calcite but not gypsum. B) Calcite will be scratched by the steel file. C) The mineral apatite will scratch topaz. D) A steel file has a hardness of about 7.5. 49. Which mineral will scratch fluorite, galena, and pyroxene? A) graphite B) calcite C) olivine D) dolomite 50. Which mineral has a metallic luster, a black streak, and is an ore of iron? A) galena B) magnetite C) pyroxene D) graphite
Answer Key Final MC 1 mock exam 1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. D 23. D 24. B 25. C 26. A 27. D 28. D 29. B 30. D 31. B 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. C 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. B 41. C 42. C 43. D 44. A 45. C 46. D 47. A 48. B 49. C 50. B