ESS55: EARTH S ATMOSPHERE / Homework #6 / (due 5/24/2018)

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ESS55: EARTH S ATMOSPHERE / Homework #6 / (due 5/24/2018) Name Student ID: 1) 21) 41) 2) 22) 42) 3) 23) 43) 4) 24) 44) 5) 25) 45) 6) 26) 46) 7) 27) 47) 8) 28) 48) 9) 29) 49) 10) 30) 50) 11) 31) 51) 12) 32) 52) 13) 33) 53) 14) 34) 54) 15) 35) 55) 16) 36) 56) 17) 37) 57) 18) 38) 58) 19) 39) 59) 20) 40) 60)

61) 81) 62) 82) 63) 83) 64) 84) 65) 85) 66) 86) 67) 87) 68) 88) 69) 89) 70) 90) 71) 91) 72) 92) 73) 93) 74) 94) 75) 95) 76) 96) 77) 97) 78) 98) 79) 99) 80) 100)

ESS55: EARTH S ATMOSPHERE / Homework #6!1 1. Dew is most likely to form on a. clear, calm nights. b. cloudy, calm nights. c. clear, windy nights. d. cloudy, windy nights. e. rainy nights. 2. The cooling of the ground to produce dew is mainly the result of a. conduction. b. radiational cooling. c. cooling due to the release of latent heat. d. advection. 3. Particles that serve as surfaces on which water vapor may condense are called a. hydrophobic nuclei. b. nacreous nuclei. c. condensation nuclei. d. scud. 4. Frost forms when a. objects on the ground cool below the dew point temperature. b. the dew point is 32 F or below. c. water vapor changes into ice without first becoming a liquid. 5. Frost typically forms on the inside of a windowpane (rather than the outside) because a. the inside of the pane is colder than the outside. b. there is more water vapor touching the inside of the pane. c. there is less water vapor touching the inside of the pane. 6. Condensation nuclei may be a. particles of dust. b. nitric acid particles. c. smoke from forest fires. d. salt from the ocean. e. all of the above 7. Condensation nuclei are important in the atmosphere because

!2 a. they provide most of the minerals found in water. b. they make it easier for condensation to occur in the atmosphere. c. they are the sole producers of smog. d. they filter out sunlight. e. they provide the only means we have of tracking wind motions. 8. When radiation fog "burns off", the fog tends to dissipate a. from the bottom up. b. from the top down. c. starting at the middle and working both upward and downward. 9. Radiation fog forms best on a a. clear winter night with a slight breeze. b. cloudy winter night with a strong breeze. c. clear summer night with a strong breeze. d. cloudy summer night with a slight breeze. e. cloudy winter night with a slight breeze. 10. On a clear night, the minimum temperature drops to 34 F. The following night, fog forms early in the evening. It is a good bet the minimum temperature will not be as low because of the a. enhancement of the greenhouse effect by the fog cloud. b. trapping of smoke and dust by the water vapor. c. calm winds that accompany fog. 11. On a cold, winter morning, the most likely place for radiation fog to form is a. at the top of a hill or mountain. b. in a valley. c. along the side of a hill. d. over a body of water. 12. The fog that forms along the Pacific coastline of North America is mainly which type? a. radiation fog b. upslope fog c. frontal fog d. advection fog e. steam fog

13. If fog is forming at Denver, Colorado, and the wind is blowing from the east, then the fog is!3 most likely a. advection fog. b. frontal fog. c. upslope fog. d. radiation fog. 14. Exhaled breath from your mouth can condense when a. it is very cold. b. it is very warm and humid. c. the addition of water vapor from your breath causes the air's relative humidity to exceed 100 percent. 15. Fog that most often forms as warm rain falls into a cold layer of surface air is called a. radiation fog. b. evaporation (mixing) fog. c. advection fog. d. upslope fog. 16. Clouds are classified by their a. appearance. b. altitude. c. method of formation. e. altitude and method of formation. 17. Fog is a major hazard to aviation. a. true b. false 18. Which association below is NOT correct? a. cirrocumulus - high cloud b. cumulus - cloud of vertical extent c. altostratus - high cloud d. stratus - low cloud 19. Even at high elevations where cirrus clouds are found, liquid water still exists in the clouds. a. true b. false 20. Which association below is not correct?

!4 a. cumulus congestus - anvil top b. cumulus - fair weather cumulus c. altocumulus castellanus - resemble "little castles" d. stratus fractus - scud e. cumulonimbus - thunderstorm clouds 21. Which cloud is least likely to produce precipitation that reaches the ground? a. stratus b. nimbostratus c. cumulonimbus d. cirrocumulus 22. Which cloud type is composed of ice crystals and can cause a halo to form around the sun or moon? a. altostratus b. stratus c. nimbostratus d. cirrostratus e. angelitus 23. Which of the following associations is not correct? a. altostratus - middle cloud b. cirrus - high cloud c. stratocumulus - cloud of vertical development d. cirrocumulus - high cloud e. cumulonimbus - cloud of vertical development 24. Light or moderate-but-steady precipitation is most often associated with clouds. a. nimbostratus b. cirrostratus c. cirrocumulus d. cumulonimbus 25. Which of the following pairs of cloud types could be very similar in appearance? a. cumulus and cirrus b. cirrostratus and stratus c. altocumulus and cirrocumulus d. cirrocumulus and cumulonimbus 26. When viewed from the surface, the smallest individual cloud elements (puffs) are observed with which cloud?

a. stratocumulus!5 b. cumulus c. cirrocumulus d. altocumulus e. cumulonimbus 27. Cirrus clouds are composed primarily of a. water droplets. b. water vapor. c. ice particles. d. salt aerosols. 28. Detached clouds of delicate and fibrous appearance, without shading, usually white in color and sometimes of a silky appearance are a. stratus. b. cirrocumulus. c. altostratus. d. cirrus. 29. Suppose the sky is completely covered with a thin, white layered-type cloud. You look at the ground and see that objects cast a distinct shadow. From this you conclude that the cloud type must be a. stratus. b. nimbostratus. c. cirrostratus. d. stratocumulus. 30. A dim, "watery" sun visible through a gray sheet-like cloud layer is often a good indication of clouds. a. stratocumulus b. cirrostratus c. cumulonimbus d. altostratus e. nimbostratus 31. An anvil-shaped top is most often associated with a. cumulonimbus. b. cumulus congestus. c. altocumulus. d. cumulus humilis.

32.!6 A low, lumpy cloud layer that appears in rows, patches, or rounded masses would be classified a. nimbostratus. b. stratus. c. altocumulus. d. stratocumulus. 33. Hail is usually associated with what cloud? a. stratus b. cumulus c. stratocumulus d. altocumulus e. cumulonimbus 34. The cloud with the greatest vertical growth is a. cumulus congestus. b. cumulus humilis. c. cumulonimbus. d. cirrocumulus. 35. As Apollo 12 ascended into the atmosphere, the height of the surrounding clouds was noted to be 42,000 feet. A lightning stroke was seen within these clouds, indicating that they must have been a. cumulus congestus. b. cumulonimbus. c. cirrus. d. cirrocumulus. e. lenticular. 36. Which cloud forms in descending air? a. cumulus fractus b. cumulonimbus c. mammatus d. pileus 37. Which below is NOT a way in which a contrail may form? a. from water vapor in the engine exhaust mixing with air b. by air cooling as it passes over the aircraft's wings c. due to heating of the air by the engine exhaust 38. When clouds are viewed near the horizon, the individual cloud elements usually

a. appear closer together than is actually the case.!7 b. appear farther apart than is actually the case. c. appear lighter in color than is actually the case. d. appear to have more vertical development than is actually the case. 39. If a pilot balloon rises at a rate of 100 m per minute, and if it disappears into a deck of stratus clouds 1,500 m (5,000 ft) thick in 5 minutes, what is the ceiling of the cloud layer? a. 100 m (300 ft) b. 300 m (1,000 ft) c. 500 m (1,600 ft) d. 1,500 m (5,000 ft) e. 2,000 m (6,400 ft) 40. Infrared satellite images are computer enhanced to a. increase the contrast between specific features in the picture. b. show where thick clouds with cold tops are located. c. show where clouds with tops near the freezing level are located. 41. Satellite images taken of clouds at night use a. reflected visible light. b. reflected infrared light. c. emitted infrared light. d. microwave radiation. 42. Satellites can a. monitor the amount of snow cover. b. provide information about the earth-atmosphere energy balance. c. provide information about surface water temperatures. d. monitor the movement of icebergs. e. all of the above 43. When temperatures are below freezing, the temperature to which air must be cooled in order for a phase change to occur is called the a. wet bulb. b. dew point. c. frost point. d. heat index. 44. Radiation fog typically forms on

!8 a. clear, calm days. b. clear, windy days. c. clear, calm nights. d. clear, windy nights. 45. In hilly areas, cold air typically collects a. on hilltops. b. in valleys. 46. Advection fog is often observed along the Pacific coast during summer, as westerly winds carry moist air toward the shore. The fog forms because the surface water near the coast is the surface water farther offshore. a. much colder than b. much warmer than c. the same temperature as 47. Suppose two ocean currents with different temperatures are flowing next to one another. If the wind blows perpendicular to the currents, we would expect to find a. radiation fog. b. steam fog. c. lenticular clouds. d. advection fog. 48. Upslope fog forms because air as it flows up a hill or mountain range. a. warms adiabatically b. warms radiatively c. cools adiabatically d. cools radiatively 49. Suppose two unsaturated air masses mix horizontally. The resulting mixture cannot possibly be saturated. a. true b. false 50. Which two clouds can produce precipitation? a. cumulonimbus, stratocumulus b. nimbostratus, altostratus c. nimbostratus, cirrus d. cumulonimbus, nimbostratus 51. Which of the following would increase the environmental lapse rate?

a. cold advection at higher altitudes!9 b. daytime solar heating c. surface radiational cooling e. both cold advection at higher altitudes and daytime solar heating 52. Vertical mixing of air tends to a large environmental lapse rate. a. decrease b. increase 53. If an air parcel is given a small push upward and it falls back to its original position, the atmosphere is said to be: a. stable. b. unstable. c. isothermal. d. neutral. e. adiabatic. 54. The rate at which the actual air temperature changes with increasing height above the surface is referred to as the a. environmental lapse rate. b. dry adiabatic rate. c. moist adiabatic rate. d. thermocline. 55. A rising parcel of air that does not exchange heat with its surroundings is an example of a. isothermal ascent. b. an adiabatic process. c. forced lifting. d. advection. 56. The rate at which the temperature changes inside a rising (or descending) parcel of saturated air is called the a. environmental lapse rate. b. dry adiabatic lapse rate. c. moist adiabatic lapse rate. d. latent heat release rate. 57. At the earth's surface, a rising saturated air parcel would cool most rapidly when its temperature is

!10 a. 10 F. b. 32 F. c. 50 F. d. 68 F. e. 80 F. 58. The dry adiabatic rate is the rate at which a. an air parcel rises. b. temperature changes in a rising or descending parcel of unsaturated air. c. volume changes when a parcel expands or is compressed. d. latent heat energy is released in a rising air parcel. 59. A completely dry air parcel which first rises and cools, and subsequently sinks and warms, is undergoing a. an irreversible pseudoadiabatic process. b. a reversible adiabatic process. c. an irreversible adiabatic process. 60. The difference between the "moist" and "dry" adiabatic rates is due to a. the fact that saturated air is always unstable. b. the fact that an unsaturated air parcel expands more rapidly than a saturated air parcel. c. the fact that moist air weighs less than dry air. d. the fact that latent heat is released by a rising parcel of saturated air. 61. The dry adiabatic lapse rate is greater than the moist adiabatic lapse rate. a. never b. sometimes c. always 62. A knowledge of air stability is important because a. it determines the direction of movement of storms. b. it determines the vertical motion of air. c. it determines the movement of high pressure areas. d. it determines seasonal weather patterns. 63. The most latent heat would be released in a parcel of saturated air.

a. rising, warm!11 b. rising, cold c. sinking, warm d. sinking, cold 64. Most thunderstorms do not extend very far into the stratosphere because the air in the stratosphere is a. unstable. b. stable. c. too cold. d. too thin. e. too dry. 65. Which set of conditions, working together, will make the atmosphere the most stable? a. Cool the surface and warm the air aloft. b. Cool the surface and cool the air aloft. c. Warm the surface and cool the air aloft. d. Warm the surface and warm the air aloft. 66. Subsidence inversions are best developed with pressure areas because of the air motions associated with them. a. high, rising b. high, sinking c. low, rising d. low, sinking 67. An inversion represents an extremely stable atmosphere because air that rises into the inversion will eventually become and dense than the surrounding air. a. warmer, less b. warmer, more c. colder, less d. colder, more 68. Which of the following conditions would be described as the most stable? a. Environmental lapse rate is 13 C per kilometer. b. Environmental lapse rate is 3 C per kilometer. c. isothermal conditions d. an inversion

!12 69. Which of the following environmental lapse rates would represent the most unstable atmosphere in a layer of unsaturated air? a. 3 C per 1,000 m b. 6 C per 1,000 m c. 9 C per 1,000 m d. 11 C per 1,000 m 70. In a conditionally unstable atmosphere, the environmental lapse rate will be than the moist adiabatic rate and than the dry adiabatic rate. a. greater, less b. greater, greater c. less, greater d. less, less 71. If an air parcel is given a small push upward and it continues to move upward on its own accord, the atmosphere is said to be a. stable. b. unstable. c. buoyant. d. dynamic. 72. A conditionally unstable atmosphere is with respect to unsaturated air and with respect to saturated air. a. unstable, stable b. unstable, unstable c. stable, unstable d. stable, stable 73. What two sets of conditions, working together, will make the atmosphere the most unstable? a. Cool the surface and warm the air aloft. b. Cool the surface and cool the air aloft. c. Warm the surface and cool the air aloft. d. Warm the surface and warm the air aloft. 74. Which condition below could make a layer of air more unstable?

a. Mix the air in the layer.!13 b. Lift the entire air layer. c. Cool the upper part of the layer. 75. Convective instability associated with severe thunderstorms and tornadoes can be brought on by a. lifting a stable air layer whose surface is humid and whose top is dry. b. forcing a layer of moist air to descend a mountain range. c. heating the upper portion of an unsaturated layer of air. 76. Which cloud type below would most likely form in an unstable atmosphere? a. cumulonimbus b. stratus c. cirrostratus d. nimbostratus e. cumulus humilis 77. Just above cumulus clouds you would expect to find a. a stable layer. b. an unstable layer. c. a conditionally unstable layer. d. unusually strong horizontal winds. 78. Which of the following set of surface conditions would produce a convective cumulus cloud with the highest base? a. air temperature 40 C, dew point 30 C b. air temperature 25 C, dew point 10 C c. air temperature 35 C, dew point 10 C d. air temperature 45 C, dew point 25 C e. air temperature 25 C, dew point 5 C 79. are found beneath fair-weather cumulus (cumulus humilis) clouds, whereas are found between the clouds.

!14 a. downdrafts, updrafts b. updrafts, downdrafts c. downdrafts, only horizontal motions d. updrafts, only horizontal motions 80. Which of the following sets of conditions would produce a cumulus cloud with the lowest base? a. air temperature 90 F, dew point temperature 50 F b. air temperature 90 F, dew point temperature 40 F c. air temperature 90 F, dew point temperature 60 F d. air temperature 90 F, dew point temperature 20 F 81. In a rising thermal, the dew-point temperature a. increases at a slower rate than the parcel temperature. b. decreases at the same rate as the parcel temperature. c. decreases at a slower rate than the parcel temperature. d. increases at a faster rate than the parcel temperature. 82. Which of the following statements is (are) correct? a. Convection can occur over the ocean. b. Air motions are usually downward around a cumulus cloud. c. The temperature of the rising air at a given level inside a cumulus cloud is normally warmer that the air around the cloud. 83. If you were to take a trip during the summer from Ohio to Nevada, you would most likely observe that afternoon cumulus clouds as you travel west. a. have higher cloud bases b. are larger c. form earlier in the day d. disappear 84. Suppose the surface air temperature is 66 F. If the base of a cumulus congestus cloud directly above you is 2,000 feet, what would be the approximate temperature at an altitude of 5,000 feet above you inside the cloud? (Hint: the dry adiabatic rate is 5.5 F per 1,000 feet, the moist adiabatic rate is 3.0 F per 1,000 feet.)

a. 55 F!15 b. 49 F c. 46 F d. 41 F e. 32 F 85. What would the air temperature inside a conventional jet airliner be, if outside air at an altitude of 10 km, pressure of 250 mb and a temperature of -60 C, is brought inside and compressed to a 1,000 mb pressure? (Hint: you may assume that 1,000 mb pressure is equivalent to 0 m altitude.) a. -60 C b. 0 C c. 40 C d. 60 C 86. Soaring birds in flight, like hawks and eagles, often indicate the presence of a. irreversible pseudoadiabatic processes. b. absolute instability. c. thermals. d. subsidence inversions. 87. An example of orographic clouds would be a. clouds forming over a warm ocean current. b. clouds forming on the windward slope of a mountain. c. clouds forming behind a jet airplane. d. clouds formed by surface heating. 88. An example of orographic clouds would be a. cumulus clouds produced by surface heating. b. rotor clouds. c. lee-wave clouds. d. clouds that form on the upwind slope of a mountain. e. pileus clouds. 89. The temperature an air parcel would have if it were moved to a pressure of 1,000 mb at the dry adiabatic rate is called the

!16 a. descending temperature. b. adiabatic temperature. c. potential temperature. d. dew point temperature. e. base temperature. 90. Which condition below is necessary for a layer of altostratus clouds to change into altocumulus? a. The top part of the cloud deck cools while the bottom part warms. b. Temperature increases with increasing altitude in the layer. c. The cloud layer becomes more stable. 91. Which process below will change a moist layer of stable air into a deck of low stratocumulus clouds? a. mixing b. lifting c. cooling the surface d. heat the top of the layer e. subsidence 92. In a sky filled with scattered cumulus humilis clouds, rising motions are found the clouds and sinking motions are found the clouds. a. between, under b. under, between c. under, under d. between, between 93. Sinking air sometimes cools adiabatically. a. true b. false 94. The environmental lapse rate is almost always the same as the adiabatic lapse rate. a. true b. false 95. Air which resists vertical displacements is considered to be

a. stable.!17 b. unstable. c. neutral. 96. Subsidence stability. a. increases b. decreases c. has little effect on 97. Conditional instability depends on the condition of a. fog. b. low pressure. c. wind. d. saturation. 98. If the environmental lapse rate is 5 C per 1,000 m and the temperature at the earth's surface is 25 C, then the air temperature at 2,000 m above the ground is a. 25 C. b. 30 C. c. 20 C. d. 15 C. 99. If a parcel of unsaturated air with a temperature of 30 C rises from the surface to an altitude of 1,000 m, the unsaturated parcel temperature at this altitude would be about a. 10 C warmer than at the surface. b. 10 C colder than at the surface. c. 6 C colder than at the surface. d. impossible to tell from the data given 100. If the environmental lapse rate is less than the moist adiabatic rate, the atmosphere is a. conditionally unstable. b. absoutely stable. c. absolutely unstable. d. neutrally stable.