BIO16 E1 Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The nonpolar regions of many biological macromolecules are buried in the interior of the molecule. The driving force for this clustering of nonpolar regions is: a. that the relatively strong hydrogen bonding forces between water molecules tend to exclude nonpolar materials from the aqueous environment b. that the nonpolar regions recognize similar nonpolar regions elsewhere in the molecule, and they interact through structural complementarity c. because the nonpolar regions form a cage-like structure around the charged portions of the molecule d. The nonpolar regions are always associated with the DNA genetic material on the inside of the molecule. 2. When complex biomolecules such as proteins are unfolded and disordered from their biologically active, or native, forms, the process is referred to as: a. culmination b. de-energization c. hydrolysis d. denaturation e. desorption 3. In biological systems, enzymes: a. are rigid, static lattices of biomolecules b. are always active over a very wide range of environmental conditions, such as temperature and acidity c. are only found in eukaryotes and not prokaryotes d. are the molecules in which the genetic information is encoded e. act as catalysts to accelerate the rate of reactions 4. When carbon forms only single bonds to itself or other types of atoms, these bonds are: a. octahedral b. trihedral c. monohedral d. pentagonal e. tetrahedral 5. In the formation of biomolecules, carbon forms stable, covalent bonds by electron sharing. Carbon can form as many as such bonds. a. three c. five b. four d. six 6. The four atoms that comprise more than 99% of the atoms in the human body are: a. hydrogen, carbon, oxygen, nitrogen c. nitrogen, oxygen, calcium, iron b. carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, sulfur d. carbon, hydrogen, sodium, potassium 7. The weak chemical forces that maintain biological structure include a. hydrophobic interactions b. ionic interactions
c. hydrogen bonds d. van der Waals forces e. all of the above 8. Hydrogen bonds can form between: a. hydrogen atom covalently bonded to an electronegative atom and a second electronegative atom b. a nitrogen atom covalently bonded to an electronegative atom and a nitrogen atom on another molecule c. a hydrogen atom ionically bound to an electropositive atom and a second electronegative atom d. a hydrogen covalently coupled to an electropositive atom and a second electronegative atom 9. Which of the following would NOT be a key characteristic of "life"? a. organization into cells b. response to environmental change c. reproduction d. inability to change e. using energy 10. Life a. is difficult to define. b. is viewed differently by different people. c. may be characterized, but not fully understood. d. has a history of several billion years. 11. The study of biology is important because a. it provides an understanding of life. b. it is essential for humans to understand how organisms survive. c. it is the most difficult and comprehensive of the sciences. d. it explains the nature of the universe. 12. Nonliving entities would NOT possess a. energetic interactions. b. DNA. c. atoms. d. elements. e. any of these 13. Which is the smallest unit of life that can exist as a separate entity? a. a cell b. a molecule c. an organ d. a population e. an ecosystem 14. Living organisms are different from inanimate objects because they a. react to environmental stimuli. b. exhibit massive complexity. c. possess molecules of deoxyribonucleic acid. d. exhibit multiple levels of organization. 15. During metabolism, ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is an energy source for which of the following processes?
I. reproduction II. growth III. development a. I and II b. I and III c. II only d. II and III e. I, II, and III 16. The ability to acquire, store, transfer, or utilize energy is called a. biochemistry. b. photosynthesis. c. metabolism. d. respiration. e. phosphorylation. 17. All organisms are alike in a. their requirements for energy. b. their participation in one or more nutrient cycles. c. their ultimate dependence on the sun. d. their interaction with other forms of life. 18. Which of the following would NOT be characteristic of living organisms? a. complex structural organization b. dependence on other organisms for energy and resources c. reproductive capacity d. uniformity of size and form e. capacity to evolve 19. A scientific name consists of which of the following? I. family name II. genus name III. species name a. I only b. II only c. III only d. I and II e. II and III 20. The least inclusive of the taxonomic categories listed here is a. family. b. phylum. c. class. d. order. e. genus. 21. Which group includes all of the other groups? a. phylum b. order c. family d. genus
e. species 22. The hierarchical system of nomenclature a. allows diversity to be catalogued. b. shows the evolutionary relationships among organisms. c. permits organisms to be identified. d. clarifies confusion produced by tremendous variation. 23. Hereditary instructions must a. be unchanging most of the time. b. pass from one generation to the next. c. control a large number of different characteristics. d. provide for the rare change in instructions. 24. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Diversity is the result of evolution. b. The characteristics of any living organism are under the control of a chemical. c. The diversity of living organisms makes life unpredictable, even using scientific methods. d. All organisms are alike in that their structure, organization, and interactions arise from matter and energy. e. The behavior of individual organisms is dependent upon their evolutionary history. 25. The diversity of structure, function, and behavior in living organisms is primarily the result of a. reproduction. b. heredity. c. evolution. d. chance variations in living organisms. 26. The principal point of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection was that a. long-term heritable changes in organisms are caused by use and disuse. b. mutations that adapt an organism to a given environment always arise in the greatest frequency in the organisms that occupy that environment. c. mutations are caused by all sorts of environmental influences. d. survival of characteristics in a population depends on competition between organisms, especially between members of the same species. 27. Which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Natural selection is based upon differential reproduction and survival. b. For evolution to occur in a population, there must be some variation. c. All variations found in a population are heritable. d. A population undergoes evolution when the frequency of its genes change. e. Over time, some genetic traits are more adaptive than others. 28. Four of the five answers listed below are taxonomic categories. Select the exception. a. family b. kind c. species d. order e. genus 29. Which is NOT an element? a. water b. oxygen c. carbon d. chlorine
e. hydrogen 30. Which is the smallest portion of a substance that retains the properties of an element? a. atom b. compound c. ion d. molecule e. mixture 31. Which is NOT a compound? a. salt b. a carbohydrate c. carbon d. a nucleotide e. methane 32. The negative subatomic particle is the a. neutron. b. proton. c. electron. d. both the neutron and proton. e. both the proton and electron. 33. The positive subatomic particle is the a. neutron. b. proton. c. electron. d. both the neutron and proton. e. both the proton and electron. 34. The neutral subatomic particle is the a. neutron. b. proton. c. electron. d. both the neutron and proton. e. both the proton and electron. 35. The nucleus of an atom contains a. neutrons and protons. b. neutrons and electrons. c. protons and electrons. d. protons only. e. neutrons only. 36. Which includes the other four? a. atoms b. molecules c. electrons d. elements e. protons 37. Which statement is false? a. A molecule is made of at least two atoms. b. Compounds are made of elements. c. Two atoms of oxygen make a molecule of oxygen. d. Proportions of elements in compounds vary according to their source in nature. e. Elements are found in compounds and molecules.
38. A molecule is a. a combination of two or more atoms. b. less stable than its constituent atoms separated. c. electrically charged. d. a carrier of one or more extra neutrons. e. none of these 39. The bond in table salt (NaCl) is a. polar. b. ionic. c. covalent. d. double. e. nonpolar. 40. In bonds, both atoms exert the same pull on shared electrons. a. nonpolar covalent b. polar covalent c. double covalent d. triple covalent 41. Which of these statements is false concerning covalent bonds? a. Atoms share electrons. b. Proteins possess many covalent bonds. c. Water contains polar covalent bonds. d. Covalent bonds may be "double bonds." e. Polar covalent bonds share electrons equally. 42. Which of the following is NOT true of hydrogen bonds? a. They are quite weak. b. The hydrogen is slightly positive. c. They are common in macromolecules. d. They form in salts such as NaCl. e. They always involve hydrogen. 43. Water is important to the interactions of biological molecules because a. water molecules are attracted to the charged regions of molecules such as proteins. b. it forms a cushion around the macromolecules. c. it helps disperse the macromolecules for reactivity. d. it prevents settling of the molecules in places where they would be unavailable. 44. Hydrophobic molecules are water. a. attracted to b. absorbed by c. repelled by d. mixed with e. polarized by 45. In a lipid bilayer, the phospholipid tails point inward and form a region that excludes water. a. acidic b. basic c. hydrophilic d. hydrophobic e. none of these 46. Which of the following is a naked proton? a. hydrogen ion
b. acid c. base d. hydroxyl ion e. acceptor 47. The three most common atoms in your body are a. hydrogen, oxygen, and carbon. b. carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen. c. carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen. d. nitrogen, hydrogen, and oxygen. e. carbon, oxygen, and sulfur. 48. Carbon usually forms how many bonds with other atoms? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6 49. Which of the following would NOT be classified as a polymer? a. starch b. nucleic acid c. triglyceride d. protein e. polysaccharide 50. The formation of large molecules from small repeating units is known as what kind of reaction? a. oxidation b. reduction c. condensation d. hydrolysis e. decarboxylation 51. The breakdown of large molecules by the enzymatic addition of water is an example of what kind of reaction? a. oxidation b. reduction c. condensation d. hydrolysis e. decarboxylation 52. Which is a monomer of carbohydrates? a. glycogen b. nucleotide c. simple sugar d. monosaccharide e. both simple sugar and monosaccharide 53. Glycogen is a polysaccharide used for energy storage by a. animals. b. plants. c. protistans. d. monerans. e. both animals and protistans. 54. Cellulose is a. a material found in cell walls. b. a component of cell membranes.
c. a plant protein. d. formed by photosynthesis. e. the most complex of the organic compounds. 55. Which of the following is more soluble in a nonpolar solvent (such as acetone) than in water? a. lipids b. polysaccharides c. fats d. sterols except polysaccharides 56. Triglycerides are a. carbohydrates. b. nucleotides. c. proteins. d. neutral fats. e. amino acids. 57. Primary protein structure is dependent on a. hydrophobic interactions. b. hydrogen bonds. c. bonds between carbon and hydrogen. d. covalent linkages between carbon and oxygen. 58. Proteins may function as a. structural units. b. hormones. c. storage molecules. d. transport molecules. 59. The R group found in amino acids consists of a. an amine group. b. a hydroxyl group. c. a carboxyl group. d. additional atoms. e. an amine group and a carboxyl group. 60. Amino acids are the building blocks for a. proteins. b. steroids. c. lipids. d. nucleic acids. e. carbohydrates. 61. What kind of bond exists between two amino acids in a protein? a. peptide b. ionic c. hydrogen d. amino e. sulfhydroxyl 62. The sequence of amino acids is the structure of proteins. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary
d. quaternary e. stereo 63. The secondary structure of proteins is a. helical. b. sheetlike. c. globular. d. the sequence of amino acids. e. both helical and sheetlike. 64. The interaction of four polypeptide chains in a hemoglobin molecule is structure. a. quaternary b. secondary c. primary d. tertiary e. quintinery 65. The sixth amino acid in normal hemoglobin is glutamate, but it is replaced by in sickle-cell anemia. a. histidine b. proline c. leucine d. valine e. threonine 66. Which of the following is NOT a known dysfunction in the expression of sickle-cell anemia? a. loss of shape of red blood cells with insufficient oxygen b. rheumatism c. overactive bone marrow d. excessive absorption of oxygen causing the cell to swell e. enlarged spleen 67. Nucleotides are the building blocks for a. proteins. b. steroids. c. lipids. d. ATP, NAD +, and FAD. e. carbohydrates. 68. Which of the following is NOT found in every nucleic acid? a. ribose b. phosphate group c. single-ring base d. double-ring base e. All of these are characteristic of every nucleotide. 69. The nucleotide most closely associated with energy is a. cyclic AMP. b. FAD. c. NAD +. d. ATP. 70. Nucleotides contain what kind of sugars? a. three-carbon b. four-carbon c. five-carbon
d. six-carbon e. seven-carbon 71. DNA a. is one of the adenosine phosphates. b. is one of the nucleotide coenzymes. c. contains protein-building instructions. d. translates protein-building instructions into actual protein structures. e. none of these 72. Which molecule is incorrectly matched with its component parts? a. fat: fatty acids b. starch: riboses c. protein: amino acids d. glycogen: glucoses e. nucleic acids: nucleotides 73. Four of the five answers listed below are related by a common chemical similarity. Select the exception. a. cellulose b. hydrochloric acid c. amino acid d. protein e. nucleic acid 74. Which of the following noncovalent interactions are NOT important in protein structure? a. hydrophobic interactions b. ionic bonds c. electrostatic bonds d. van der Waals forces e. hydrogen bonds 75. Which of the following statements about hydrophobic bonds is false? a. The forming of hydrophobic bonds maximizes the interaction of nonpolar residues with water. b. They form because nonpolar side chains of amino acids and other nonpolar solutes prefer to cluster in a nonpolar environment. c. Hydrophobic bonds can also be referred to as hydrophobic interactions. d. They form because nonpolar side chains prefer not to intercalate in a polar solvent such as water. e. They are of vital importance in protein structure. 76. Which of the following statements about electrostatic interactions is false? a. They arise either as electrostatic attractions between opposite charges or repulsions between like charges. b. Electrostatic interactions between charged groups on a protein surface are often complicated by the presence of salts. c. They are important for protein stability. d. Most proteins do not have amino acids that participate in electrostatic interactions. e. An electrostatic interaction may be weakened by NaCl. 77. Which of the following statements about Van der Waals interactions is false? a. They can arise due to instantaneous dipole-induced dipole interactions. b. They consist of both attractive forces and repulsive forces. c. Individual van der Waals interactions are weak.
d. They arise because of fluctuation in the electron charge distributions of adjacent nonbonded atoms. e. Because they are so weak, they do not contribute much to protein stability. 78. Which of the following statements about lipids is false? a. The lipids found in biological systems are either hydrophobic or amphipathic. b. Lipids represent highly reduced forms of carbon. c. Lipids are highly soluble in water. d. Upon oxidation in metabolism, lipids yield large amounts of energy. e. Lipids are the molecules of choice for metabolic energy storage. 79. The successive mononucleotide units in DNA and RNA are: a. linked by hydrogen bonding through phosphodiester bridges between the 3' position of one mononucleotide and the 5' position of the next b. linked by hydrogen bonding between adenine and thymine and between guanine and cytosine c. linked covalently through phosphodiester bridges between the 3' position of one mononucleotide and the 5' position of the next d. linked covalently between adenine and thymine and between guanine and cytosine e. linked by a glycosidic bond 80. The sequence of bases in the part of a complementary strand of DNA that pairs with 5'- adenine - cytosine - adenine - guanine -3' is 3'- - - - -5' (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) a. cytosine - adenine - cytosine - thymine c. thymine - adenine - thymine - cytosine b. guanine - thymine - thymine - cytosine d. thymine - guanine - thymine - cytosine 81. In DNA, the phosphodiester linkages between the adjacent nucleotides are between: a. the 3' and 4' positions of the deoxyribose units b. the 4' and 5' positions of the deoxyribose units c. the 1' and 5' positions of the deoxyribose units d. the 2' and 3' positions of the deoxyribose units e. the 3' and 5' positions of the deoxyribose units 82. In double-stranded DNA, hydrogen bonding between the bases on the two strands typically occurs between: a. adenine and guanine b. adenine and thymine c. adenine and cytosine d. adenine and uracil e. adenine and inosine 83. Both purines and pyrimidines can exist in different tautomeric forms. The forms typically found in double-stranded DNA are: a. uracil = keto; adenine = keto b. guanine = keto; cytosine = enol c. thymine = keto; guanine = keto d. guanine = enol; thymine = keto e. thymine = enol; guanine = enol 84. Transfer RNAs are involved in:
a. carrying nucleotides to the ribosome for messenger RNA synthesis b. carrying amino acids to the ribosome for protein synthesis c. carrying amino acids to peroxisomes for degradation d. carrying glucose residues to the Golgi apparatus for polysaccharide synthesis e. carrying nucleotides to the nucleus for coenzyme biosynthesis 85. There are fundamental chemical differences between DNA and RNA, such as: a. The nucleotides in RNA are linked by 3'-5' phosphodiester bridges while those in DNA involve 2'-5' bridges. b. The nucleotides in RNA include uracil, while DNA has thymine. c. The sugars in the nucleotides of RNA are hexoses, while they are the pentose deoxyribose in DNA. d. Adenine is found in DNA but not in RNA. 86. DNA is much more stable to alkaline hydrolysis than RNA because: a. DNA is usually protected by proteins, while RNA is not. b. There are many more RNA digesting enzymes present in cells than DNA digesting enzymes. c. The 2'-OH group of the ribose in RNA can assist hydrolysis of 3'-5' phosphodiester bridges, but DNA lacks the 2'-OH group. d. The uracil found in RNA but not DNA aids in the hydrolysis by alkali. e. DNA occurs in a double helix, while RNA does not. 87. The difference between the sugars in DNA and RNA is: a. In RNA the sugar residue is neuraminic acid, while the sugar residue in DNA is deoxy-neuraminic acid. b. In DNA the sugar residue is deoxy-adenine, whereas in RNA it is adenine. c. In RNA the sugar residue is a reducing sugar, whereas in DNA it is not. d. In DNA the sugar is 2-deoxy-D-ribose, whereas in RNA it is D-ribose. e. In DNA the sugar is glucose, whereas in RNA it is ribose. Matching Answer questions by matching the descriptions to the most appropriate function, process, or trait listed below. a. metabolism b. reproduction c. photosynthesis d. growth e. homeostasis 88. A process found only in plants and some bacteria 89. Most organisms exhibit this characteristic that tends to buffer the effects of environmental change. 90. The capacity to acquire, store, and use energy 91. Process in which one generation replaces another The following are types of chemical bonds. Answer the questions by matching the descriptions with the most appropriate bond type. a. hydrogen b. ionic c. covalent
d. disulfide e. peptide 92. The bond between the atoms of table salt 93. The bond type holding several molecules of water together 94. The bond between the oxygen atoms of gaseous oxygen 95. The bond that breaks when salts dissolve in water 96. Atoms connected by this kind of bond share electrons. Choose the one most appropriate answer for each. a. a six-carbon sugar b. energy carriers such as NAD + and FAD c. principal components of cell membranes d. speed up metabolic reactions e. DNA and RNA 97. enzymes 98. glucose 99. nucleotide coenzymes 100. phospholipids
BIO16 E1 Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: A PTS: 1 2. ANS: D PTS: 1 3. ANS: E PTS: 1 4. ANS: E PTS: 1 5. ANS: B PTS: 1 6. ANS: A PTS: 1 7. ANS: E PTS: 1 8. ANS: A PTS: 1 9. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy 10. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy 11. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate 12. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: DNA ENERGY AND LIFE 13. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: DNA ENERGY AND LIFE 14. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: DNA ENERGY AND LIFE 15. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: DNA ENERGY AND LIFE 16. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: DNA ENERGY AND LIFE 17. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: ENERGY AND LIFE'S ORGANIZATION 18. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: ENERGY AND LIFE'S ORGANIZATION 19. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: IF SO MUCH UNITY WHY SO MANY SPECIES? 20. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: IF SO MUCH UNITY WHY SO MANY SPECIES? 21. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: IF SO MUCH UNITY WHY SO MANY SPECIES? 22. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: IF SO MUCH UNITY WHY SO MANY SPECIES? 23. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: AN EVOLUTIONARY VIEW OF DIVERSITY
24. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: AN EVOLUTIONARY VIEW OF DIVERSITY 25. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: AN EVOLUTIONARY VIEW OF DIVERSITY 26. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: AN EVOLUTIONARY VIEW OF DIVERSITY 27. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: AN EVOLUTIONARY VIEW OF DIVERSITY 28. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate 29. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: REGARDING THE ATOMS 30. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: REGARDING THE ATOMS 31. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: REGARDING THE ATOMS 32. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: REGARDING THE ATOMS 33. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: REGARDING THE ATOMS 34. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: REGARDING THE ATOMS 35. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: REGARDING THE ATOMS 36. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: WHAT HAPPENS WHEN ATOM BONDS WITH ATOM? 37. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: WHAT HAPPENS WHEN ATOM BONDS WITH ATOM? 38. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: WHAT HAPPENS WHEN ATOM BONDS WITH ATOM? 39. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: IMPORTANT BONDS IN BIOLOGICAL MOLECULES 40. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: IMPORTANT BONDS IN BIOLOGICAL MOLECULES 41. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: IMPORTANT BONDS IN BIOLOGICAL MOLECULES 42. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: IMPORTANT BONDS IN BIOLOGICAL MOLECULES 43. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: PROPERTIES OF WATER 44. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: PROPERTIES OF WATER 45. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: PROPERTIES OF WATER 46. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: ACIDS BASES AND BUFFERS 47. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: THE MOLECULES OF LIFE-FROM STRUCTURE TO FUNCTION 48. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: THE MOLECULES OF LIFE-FROM STRUCTURE TO FUNCTION 49. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: HOW DO CELLS BUILD ORGANIC COMPOUNDS? 50. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: HOW DO CELLS BUILD ORGANIC COMPOUNDS? 51. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: HOW DO CELLS BUILD ORGANIC COMPOUNDS? 52. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: CARBOHYDRATES-THE MOST ABUNDANT MOLECULES OF LIFE 53. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: CARBOHYDRATES-THE MOST ABUNDANT MOLECULES OF LIFE
54. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: CARBOHYDRATES-THE MOST ABUNDANT MOLECULES OF LIFE 55. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: GREASY OILY-MUST BE LIPIDS 56. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: GREASY OILY-MUST BE LIPIDS 57. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: A STRING OF AMINO ACIDS: PROTEIN PRIMARY STRUCTURE 58. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: A STRING OF AMINO ACIDS: PROTEIN PRIMARY STRUCTURE 59. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: A STRING OF AMINO ACIDS: PROTEIN PRIMARY STRUCTURE 60. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: A STRING OF AMINO ACIDS: PROTEIN PRIMARY STRUCTURE 61. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: A STRING OF AMINO ACIDS: PROTEIN PRIMARY STRUCTURE 62. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: A STRING OF AMINO ACIDS: PROTEIN PRIMARY STRUCTURE 63. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: HOW DOES A PROTEIN'S FINAL STRUCTURE EMERGE? 64. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: HOW DOES A PROTEIN'S FINAL STRUCTURE EMERGE? 65. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: WHY IS PROTEIN STUCTURE SO IMPORTANT? 66. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: WHY IS PROTEIN STUCTURE SO IMPORTANT? 67. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: NUCLEOTIDES AND NUCLEIC ACIDS 68. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: NUCLEOTIDES AND NUCLEIC ACIDS 69. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: NUCLEOTIDES AND NUCLEIC ACIDS 70. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Easy TOP: NUCLEOTIDES AND NUCLEIC ACIDS 71. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate TOP: NUCLEOTIDES AND NUCLEIC ACIDS 72. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Difficult TOP: NUCLEOTIDES AND NUCLEIC ACIDS 73. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate 74. ANS: B PTS: 1 75. ANS: A PTS: 1 76. ANS: D PTS: 1 77. ANS: E PTS: 1 78. ANS: C PTS: 1 79. ANS: C PTS: 1 80. ANS: D PTS: 1 81. ANS: E PTS: 1 82. ANS: B PTS: 1
83. ANS: C PTS: 1 84. ANS: B PTS: 1 85. ANS: B PTS: 1 86. ANS: C PTS: 1 87. ANS: D PTS: 1 MATCHING 88. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate 89. ANS: E PTS: 1 DIF: Easy 90. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate 91. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Easy 92. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate 93. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate 94. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate 95. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate 96. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate 97. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate 98. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate 99. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate 100. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: Moderate