MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Name Take home test #13 on Chaps. 20, 21, and 22 AP Biology Mrs. Laux DUE: MONDAY, JANUARY 25.2010 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Which of the following is not a problem in applying the biological definition of species? A. asexually reproductive organism B. greenhouse hybrids C. reproductive isolation from other species D. self-fertilization E. extinct organisms 2. Taxonomists tend to use the to characterize species for classification. A. morphological species concept B. biological species concept C. evolutionary species concept D. ecological species principle E. genetic species principle 3. The species concept defines a species as a population whose members do not interbreed in nature. A. genetic B. ecological C. morphological D. biological E. evolutionary 4. The evolutionary species concept states that for a population to be declared a separate species: A. it must have diverged significantly from other populations. B. it must be morphologically different from any other population. C. it must not interbreed with any other population. D. it must occupy a different niche than any other population. E. it must have undergone natural selection sometime in its history. 5. Speciation: A. maintains an intermediate phenotype in a stable environment. B. is the formation of a new species from an ancestral population. C. only occurs when a population is geographically isolated. D. is a change in allele frequencies in a population. E. is the end result of macroevolution but not microevolution. 6. Mechanisms that prevent interbreeding between two different species whose ranges overlap are referred to as: A. sympatric isolating mechanisms. B. equilibrium isolating mechanisms. C. reproductive isolating mechanisms. D. allopatric isolating mechanisms. E. preadaptive isolating mechanisms. 7. prevent fish sperm from fertilizing frog eggs. A. Energetic barriers B. Biological barriers C. Postzygotic barriers D. Ecological barriers E. Prezygotic barriers 20-1

Name Take home test #13 on Chaps. 20, 21, and 22 AP Biology Mrs. Laux DUE: MONDAY, JANUARY 25.2010 8. One group of fruit flies reproduces in August and one group reproduces in September. Which of the following mechanisms is preventing them from cross breeding? A. hybrid sterility B. genetic isolation C. sexual isolation D. mechanical isolation E. temporal isolation 9. The ranges of black bears and brown bears overlap. However, black bears spend most of their time in the woods and brown bears spend most of their time along the river. Which of the following best describes why black and brown bears do not interbreed? A. environmental isolation B. biological isolation C. evolutionary isolation D. habitat isolation E. temporal isolation 10. The distinctive mating signals that have evolved as part of an animal s courtship illustrate what type of reproductive isolating mechanism? A. behavioral isolation B. mechanical isolation C. gametic isolation D. temporal isolation E. hybrid breakdown 11. If two species have incompatible mating structures, then will prevent them from mating. A. temporal isolation B. mechanical isolation C. gametic isolation D. sexual isolation E. postzygotic barriers 12. When the reproductive cells of different species are incompatible and cannot accomplish fertilization, it is referred to as: A. behavioral isolation. B. gametic isolation. C. hybrid breakdown. D. temporal isolation. E. hybrid sterility. 13. A porpoise and a dolphin, both mammals, mate and produce an embryo, but the embryo fails to complete development. This event describes: A. gestational abortion. B. hybrid inviability. C. hybrid breakdown. D. temporal isolation. E. hybrid sterility. 20-2

Name Take home test #13 on Chaps. 20, 21, and 22 AP Biology Mrs. Laux DUE: MONDAY, JANUARY 25.2010 14. Hybrid breakdown is characterized by: A. sterility of the progeny of hybrid individuals. B. sterility of hybrid adults. C. death during pregnancy of hybrid females. D. death during early life of hybrid embryos. E. early death of hybrid embryos. 15. Mules are an example of: A. hybrid breakdown. B. hybrid inviability. C. hybrid sterility. D. macroevolution. E. microevolution. 20-3

Name Take home test #13 on Chaps. 20, 21, and 22 AP Biology Mrs. Laux DUE: MONDAY, JANUARY 25.2010 16. Hybrid sterility is common when: A. the gametes of an interspecific hybrid are abnormal. B. the two parental species have different chromosome numbers. C. chromosomal synapsis during meiosis cannot occur properly. D. chromosomal segregation during meiosis cannot occur properly. E. All of these. 17. Hybrid inviability and hybrid sterility are reproductive isolating mechanisms that are termed: A. homozygotic barriers. B. prezygotic barriers. C. heterozygotic barriers. D. postzygotic barriers. E. homozygotic barriers. 18. Based on the data in the figure, a likely reason for speciation between these two sympatric species of frogs is: A. allopolyploidy. B. mechanical isolation. C. habitat isolation. D. temporal isolation. E. hybrid inviability. 19. The two major forces contributing to allopatric speciation are: A. mutation and natural selection. B. natural selection and migration. C. nonrandom mating and migration. D. natural selection and genetic drift. E. genetic drift and mutation. 20. In speciation, a population forms a new species within the same geographical region as the original species. A. allopatric B. sympatric C. heterogeneous D. autologous E. parapatric 21. An organism with multiple sets of chromosomes from different species is called: A. a gametopolyploid. B. a heteropolypoloid. C. a hybrid polyploid. D. an autopolyploid. E. an allopolyploid. 20-4

Chapter 21: The Origin and Evolutionary History of Life 22. Allopolyploidy is a significant factor in the evolution of: A. bacteria. B. animals. C. protozoa. D. fungi. E. flowering plants. 23. Which of the following groups of organisms demonstrated a sudden appearance in the fossil record and continues to exhibit remarkable diversity today? A. ferns and mosses B. fungi C. algae D. flowering plants E. pines 24. Which of the following statements about allopolyploidy is false? A. It can result in a new, reproductively isolated species in just one generation. B. Many flowering plant species are allopolyploids. C. It accounts for a large portion of the remarkable species diversity observed on Earth today. D. The hybrid may have a combination of traits conferring greater fitness than the parent species. E. The hybrid may assume a new role in the environment and so coexist with the parent species. 25. Selection of mates based on appearance or some other characteristic is termed: A. zygotic choice. B. sexual selection. C. postzygotic selection. D. gametic preference. E. sexual orientation. 26. Having legs longer than your arms is an example of: A. an allometric growth pattern. B. an adaptive growth pattern. C. an allopatric growth pattern. D. paedomorphosis. E. a preadaptation. 21-5

Chapter 21: The Origin and Evolutionary History of Life 27. What process refers to dramatic phenotypic changes that sometimes occur in evolution, such as the appearance of feathered wings during the evolution of birds? A. paedomorphosis B. gradualism C. macroevolution D. allopolyploidy E. microevolution 28. Which model would predict the abrupt appearance of a new species in the fossil record, with little or no evidence of intermediate forms? A. anagenesis B. gradualism C. microevolution D. paedomorphosis E. punctuated equilibrium 29. Which model would predict that populations diverge from one another through the slow accumulation of adaptive changes within each population? A. punctuated equilibrium B. paedomorphosis C. hybridization D. gradualism E. allopolyploidy 30. Examples of new features, which include wings on insects, flowers on plants, and feathers on birds, are referred to as: A. preadaptations. B. allometric growth. C. allopolyploidy. D. paedomorphosis. E. punctuated equilibrium. 31. Adaptive radiation is often accompanied by: A. migration to an island. B. a mass extinction. C. a devastating event, such as a volcanic eruption. D. climatic change. E. Any of these. 32. New ecological roles that were not previously exploited by an ancestral organism are referred to as: A. paedomorphosis. B. adaptive zones. C. punctuated equilibrium. D. adaptive radiation. E. sympatric speciation. 21-6

Chapter 21: The Origin and Evolutionary History of Life 33. The continuous, low-level extinction rate of species is referred to as: A. minimal extinction. B. mass extinction. C. background extinction. D. temporal extinction. E. selective extinction. 34. A newly evolved species may take over an ecological role or ecological niche that is already occupied if the new species has: A. the ability to alter or change the environmental parameters. B. features that make it competitively superior to the original occupant of that niche. C. the ability to evolve through natural selection, whereas the original occupant cannot continue to evolve. D. the ability to grow to a larger size, thus providing it with a selective advantage. E. fitness that is almost as high as the fitness of the original species. 35. The area where two populations overlap and breeding occurs, even if biologists consider the populations to be different species, is known as: A. a homozygous zone. B. a hybrid zone. C. an autologous zone. D. an adaptive zone. E. a primary zone. 36. When larval or juvenile characteristics are retained in the adult stage, it is known as: A. paedomorphosis. B. allometry. C. adaptive radiation. D. stasis. E. preadaptation. 37. The atmosphere of the early Earth is currently thought to have contained: A. carbon dioxide, water, oxygen, nitrogen, and hydrogen. B. carbon dioxide, water, carbon monoxide, hydrogen, and nitrogen. C. carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, water, hydrogen, and nitric oxide. D. carbon dioxide, ozone, nitric oxide, water, and hydrogen sulfide. E. methane, water, ammonia, nitrogen, and oxygen. 38. The Earth s early atmosphere was probably strongly: A. oxidizing. B. electronegative. C. reducing. D. ionic. E. acidic. 21-7

Chapter 21: The Origin and Evolutionary History of Life 39. High energy sources on early Earth, which were most likely involved in the origin of life, included: A. volcanic activity, lightning, and ultraviolet radiation. B. bombardment from meteorites, gamma radiation, and cosmic radiation. C. intense radiation, volcanic activity, and redox energy. D. oxidizing environment, electrical discharge, and geothermal energy. E. infrared radiation, ultraviolet radiation, and oxidizing radiation. 40. The concept that simple organic molecules could form spontaneously from simpler raw materials was first proposed by: A. Miller and Urey. B. Charles Darwin. C. Thomas Malthus. D. Watson and Crick. E. Oparin and Haldane. 41. The hypothesis that organic molecules formed near the Earth s surface in pools of water is called the: A. clay hypothesis. B. iron-sulfur world hypothesis. C. iron-clay hypothesis. D. organic broth hypothesis. E. prebiotic soup hypothesis. 42. The hypothesis that organic molecules formed near deep sea hydrothermal vents is called the: A. iron-sulfur world hypothesis. B. iron-clay hypothesis. C. organic sea hypothesis. D. prebiotic soup hypothesis. E. sulfur vent hypothesis. 43. The most significant outcome of the Miller and Urey experiment was that they: A. were the first to synthesize living cells. B. demonstrated natural selection. C. proved that the iron-sulfur world hypothesis was false. D. proved that life did not originate on Earth. E. synthesized organic molecules from inorganic materials. 44. Assemblages of abiotically produced polymers are called: A. stomatolites. B. protobionts. C. polyribosomes. D. endosymbionts. E. ribozymes. 21-8

Chapter 21: The Origin and Evolutionary History of Life 45. Some protobionts have been shown to have the ability to: A. divide by binary fission. B. maintain a chemical environment different from their external environment. C. metabolize certain compounds. D. grow in size. E. All of these. 21-9

Chapter 21: The Origin and Evolutionary History of Life 46. The results of the experiment represented in the accompanying figure and similar experiments include the formation of all of the following except: A. sugars. B. lipids. C. ATP. D. amino acids. E. All selections can be formed. 47. Protobionts produced by abiotically produced polypeptides are called: A. prokaryotes. B. stromatolites. C. microspheres. D. peptidebionts. E. polybionots. 48. One of the most significant steps in the evolution of true cells from macromolecular assemblages was the evolution of: A. molecular reproduction. B. covalent bonding. C. hydrogen bonding. D. electronegativity. E. valence electrons. 49. Macromolecules that are capable of self-replication are: A. proteins. B. polysaccharides. C. steroids. D. DNA and RNA. E. triglycerides. 50. It has been suggested that RNA was the first informational molecule to evolve because: A. RNA molecules are more central to modern inheritance than DNA. B. RNA molecules can catalyze a variety of biologically important reactions. C. RNA molecules degrade more slowly in solution than DNA molecules. D. RNA molecules were the first molecules synthesized by Miller and Urey. E. None of the above. 21-10

Chapter 21: The Origin and Evolutionary History of Life 51. Cyanobacteria can be found in columns of fossils referred to as: A. protobionts. B. anaerobes. C. stromatolites. D. microspheres. E. ribozymes. 52. The first enzymes were probably: A. protein reproducing enzymes. B. RNA degrading enzymes. C. DNA synthesis enzymes. D. ribozymes. E. RNA synthesis enzymes. 53. The first cells were most likely heterotrophic anaerobes because: A. they were dependent upon cyanobacteria for oxygen. B. they manufactured organic molecules and needed oxygen. C. they manufactured organic molecules and do not need oxygen. D. they utilized preformed organic molecules and needed oxygen. E. they utilized preformed organic molecules and did not need oxygen. 54. In the process of splitting water during photosynthesis, the first cyanobacteria released: A. hydrogen gas. B. oxygen gas. C. photons of light. D. heat from longer wavelengths of light. E. electrons, protons, and neutrons. 55. Organisms whose metabolic processes are harmed by the presence of oxygen are called: A. obligate anaerobes. B. facultative anaerobes. C. facultative aerobes. D. heterotrophs. E. obligate aerobes. 56. Millions of years ago, the activity of which cellular organelle would have been dependent upon the presence of cyanobacteria? A. Golgi B. nucleus C. ribosome D. endoplasmic reticulum E. mitochondrion 21-11

Chapter 21: The Origin and Evolutionary History of Life 57. A significant reduction in the amount of which gas would allow more ultraviolet radiation to reach the earth s surface? A. carbon dioxide B. methane C. ozone D. cyanide E. oxygen 58. The theory that eukaryotic organelles originated as prokaryotes that survived ingestion by a host cell and ultimately evolved mutualistic relationships with the host cell is termed the: A. obligative symbiotic theory. B. heterosymbiont theory. C. endosymbiont theory. D. facultative symbiotic theory. E. autotrophic symbiotic theory. 59, 60. Use the figure to answer the corresponding questions. 59. The theory illustrated in the accompanying figure is supported by which piece of additional evidence? A. The results of the Miller-Urey experiment B. Burgess shale fossils C. Ediacarian fossils D. The presence of DNA in some organelles E. All answers support the illustrated theory. 60. The theory illustrated by the figure is used to explain the origin of: A. anaerobes. B. prokaryotes. C. eukaryotes. D. vascular plants. E. protobionts. 61. Which of the following is not characteristic of primates? A. stereoscopic vision B. grasping hands C. large brain size D. freely rotating limbs E. claws at the tips of digits 21-12

Chapter 22: The Evolution of Primates 62. The earliest primates were: A. knuckle walkers. B. bipedal. C. brachiate. D. quadrupedal. E. arboreal. 63. What major feature allows primates to grasp objects? A. jointed appendages B. an opposable thumb C. an enlarged foramen magnum D. a forelimb with four digits E. a large brain 64. The suborder Anthropoidea includes: A. monkeys, apes, and humans. B. humans only. C. apes and monkeys only. D. lemurs, galagos, and lorises. E. monkeys and lemurs. 65. Arrange the following going from the earliest to the most recent according to the time they evolved from a common ancestor. 1) New World monkeys 2) Orangutans 3) Humans 4) Gibbons 5) Gorillas A. 1, 4, 2, 5, 3 B. 1, 2, 4, 3, 5 C. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3 D. 2, 5, 4, 1, 3 E. 3, 5, 2, 4, 1 22-13

Chapter 22: The Evolution of Primates 66. One characteristic of New World monkeys that separates them from Old World monkeys is: A. the presence of a prehensile tail. B. their quadrupedal locomotion. C. their fully opposable thumb. D. the downward orientation of their nostrils. E. All of these. 67. The hominoid genus Pongo includes: A. gorillas. B. gibbons. C. orangutans. D. chimpanzees. E. humans. 68. Gorillas and chimpanzees: A. both knuckle walk. B. both have long arms. C. are quadrapedal walkers. D. lack tails. E. All of these. 69. DNA sequence analyses indicate that the nearest living relatives to humans are: A. chimpanzees. B. gibbons. C. gorillas. D. lemurs. E. orangutans. 70. The modern human skull lacks: A. a rounded or U-shaped arrangement of teeth. B. supraorbital ridges. C. a large brain case (cranium). D. small canine teeth. E. a foramen magnum. 71. You are studying a fossilized primate skull and notice that the foramen magnum is located at the center of the base of the skull. You conclude that: A. the skull belonged to a knuckle walker. B. the skull belonged to a quadruped. C. the skull belonged to a bipedal primate. D. the skull belonged to a brachiator. E. None of these. 22-14

Chapter 22: The Evolution of Primates 72. Which feature(s) contributed to the ability of humans to maintain an upright body position? A. curvature of the spine B. size and position of the pelvis C. position of the foramen magnum D. alignment of the toes E. All of these. 73. The immediate ancestors of the genus Homo belonged to the genus: A. Australopithecus. B. Pongo. C. Pan. D. Sahelanthropus. E. Ardipithecus. 74. The immediate ancestors of the genus Australopithecus is believed to be the genus: A. Aegyptopithecus. B. Pongo. C. Pan. D. Sahelanthropus. E. Ardipithecus. 75. The skeleton nicknamed Lucy is: A. Homo habilis. B. Australopithecus afarensis. C. Australopithecus africanus. D. Ardipithecus ramidus. E. Homo erectus. 76. Homo habilis may have been the first hominid to: A. bury its dead. B. use pictorial symbolism. C. use fire for cooking and heating. D. have well-organized family units. E. consciously design tools. 77. Who were the first hominids thought to wear clothing, build fires, and live in caves or shelters? A. Homo sapiens B. Australopithecus africanus C. Australopithecus afarensis D. Homo habilis E. Homo erectus 22-15

Chapter 22: The Evolution of Primates 78. Neandertals were first discovered near and named for: A. the Neander River in Africa. B. the Neander Valley in India. C. the Neander Mountains in France. D. the Neander Bay in Canada. E. the Neander Valley in Germany. 79. Neandertals existed until approximately: A. 5,000 years ago. B. 15,000 years ago. C. 30,000 years ago. D. 70,000 years ago. E. 100,000 years ago. 80. Analysis of mitochondrial DNA from Neandertal bone revealed that: A. Neandertals did evolve into Homo sapiens. B. Neandertals exist as certain geographical races of Homo sapiens. C. Neandertals are the same species as modern Homo sapiens. D. Neandertals evolved from Homo habilis. E. Neandertals did not contribute to the modern Homo sapiens gene pool. 81. Homo sapiens with anatomically modern features first existed approximately: A. 2,000 years ago. B. 4,000 years ago. C. 10,000 years ago. D. 40,000 years ago. E. 200,000 years ago. 82. While looking for evidence of early human or humanlike individuals, you discover a cave in which there are paintings, engravings, and sculptures. Which of the following most likely lived in the cave at some time during their life? A. Australopithecus africanus B. Neandertals C. Homo erectus D. Cro-Magnons E. Homo habilis 83. DNA analysis of mitochondrial and nuclear DNA from the Y chromosome supports the hypothesis of the origin of the species Homo sapiens. A. out of Africa B. Homo erectus C. multiregional D. multinational E. Asian focus 22-16

Chapter 22: The Evolution of Primates 84. Why have humans experienced cultural evolution, while other species of primates have not? A. Humans have greater intelligence than other primates. B. Humans have a higher level of social organization. C. Humans live longer than other primates. D. Humans are unable to escape predators like other primates. E. Humans are physically stronger than most primates. 85. The estimated world population in 2006 was almost: A. 750 million. B. 1 billion. C. 3 billion. D. 5 billion. E. 7 billion. 22-17