Biology 141 General Biology Fall 2014 Dr. Carey Final Exam

Biology 141 General Biology Fall 2014 Dr. Carey Final Exam Name Part I Multiple choice 1 pt. each. 1. The oldest fossils yet discovered on Earth are approximately billion years old. A) 4.5 B) 4.0 C) 2.2 D) 1.0 E) 0.55 2. These oldest fossils are likely to be classified as: A) viruses B) autotrophs C) prokaryotes D) eucaryotes E) more than one of the above 3. Which of the following forces necessarily leads to adaptation in a population of organisms? A) natural selection B) mutation C) genetic drift D) gene flow E) more than one of the above F) all of the above 4. A population is: A) more than one species B) shares a common gene pool C) consists of all the organisms in an area D) both B and C E) all of the above 5. Why is likely that the earliest cells were heterotrophs? A) they were prokaryotes B) they had no DNA C) they had few original internal biochemical pathways D) there was no O2 in the environment E) sunlight intensity was not as high 6. According to a widely accepted hypothesis, an individual would be more apt to behave altruistically toward its: A) first cousins B) grandparents C) second cousins D) grandchildren E) both B and D 7. Explain why you chose your particular answer to question #6. 8. The name of the theory you used to answer question #6 and 7 is: 9. You are raising fruit flies, and when each individual hatches, you measure its wings. You allow 25% of the flies with the shortest wings to reproduce, and you continue this treatment for 50 generations. At the end of the experiment you would expect: A) all flies to be born without wings B) all flies to be born with normal wing sizes C) a mixture of wingless and winged flies D) average wing size to be much smaller E) none of the above 10. You were subjecting the flies in question 9 to selection. A) epigamic B) sexual C) disruptive D) stabilizing E) directional

11. At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium in a population, the proportion of individuals having a dominant phenotype would be: A) p 2 B) 2pq C) q 2 D) p 2 + 2pq E) q 2 + 2pq 12. According to the Hardy-Weinberg theory, there will be no evolution if 5 conditions are met. Which of the following is not one of these conditions? A) a very large population size B) no genetic variation C) no immigration D) equal reproduction of genotypes E) normal meiosis 13. Which of the Hardy-Weinberg conditions is most likely to be met in a natural population? (Use the choices in question 12) 14. In a taste test for PTC, 75 of 100 people are found to be tasters, a dominant trait. If the population is in a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what proportion are nontasters? A) 0 B) 0.5 C) 0.25 D) 0.50 E) 0.75 15. In the population in question 14, what proportion are heterozygous for taste alleles? (Use the choices from #14) 16. A population of maple trees inhabits an environment that is very stable over time. We note that average leaf size between trees is also very stable and uniform. This is most likely a result of: A) stabilizing selection B) genetic drift C) disruptive selection D) directional selection E) gene flow 17. The fitness of an individual organism is directly determined by its: A) ability to compete for resources B) resistance to disease C) ability to escape predators D) ability to contribute its genes to future generations E) all of the above 18. Compared to a large mainland population, genetic drift in a small island population is: A) less important because there is less variation B) less important because of small population size C) more important because of favorable habitat D) more important because of small population size E) more important because of the absence of selection 19. In a population of 100,000 fruit flies, 7000 have genotype AA, 26000 genotype Aa, and 67000 type aa. What is p, the frequency of the A allele? A) 1.0 B) 0.8 C) 0.36 D) 0.2 E) 0.04 20. The population in question 19 is in a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. A) true B) false C) there is not enough information to determine validity of the statement 21. The population in question 19 reproduces and has 100,000 offspring. In the offspring 10000 are genotype AA, 20000 Aa, and 70000 aa. The population evolved. (Use the same choices as in question 20)

22. The offspring population in question 21 is in a Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? (Use the same choices as in question 20) 23. All 100 individuals in a population have exactly the same genotype. 25 of the individuals emigrate from the population. As a result of this emigration, the population evolved. (Use the same choices as in question 20) 24. The first step in speciation normally is: A) geographic isolation of parts of a population B) hybrid sterility C) natural selection D) great changes in environmental conditions 25. Careful measurement has shown that duck eggs of average size have a higher hatching rate than those of small or large sizes. This is an example of: A) directional selection B) disruptive selection C) stabilizing selection 26. From question 25, we would expect average egg size in these ducks to: A) increase B) decrease C) stay the same D) either A or B 27. The energy used by all organisms is released from organic storage molecules through the process of: A) digestion B) photosynthesis C) chemiosmosis D) respiration E) production 28. The usable end product of the process in question 27 is: A) protein B) sugar C) NAD D) ATP E) oxygen 29. Most of the process in question 27 occurs in: A) lysosomes B) chloroplasts C) endoplasmic reticulum D) mitochondria E) nuclei 30. Carbohydrates are composed of building blocks (monomers) called: A) simple lipids B) simple sugars C) amino acids D) fatty acids E) nucleotides 31. Transfer RNA is useful in the process of: A) replication B) translation C) transcription D) translocation E) transformation 32. If a blood cell is in distilled water, it is in a(n) solution. A) hypotonic B) isotonic C) hypertonic 33. A cell in such a solution as in question 32 will: A) swell and burst B) remain unchanged C) shrivel up 34. Proteins are produced in association with a cell structure called a(n): A) Golgi body B) mitochondrion C) ribosome D) ER E) lysosome 35. In a testcross one parent is always: A) heterozygous recessive B) homozygous dominant C) heterozygous dominant D) homozygous recessive E) codominant

36. A tentative answer to a scientific question is a(n): A) theory B) experiment C) prediction D) deduction E) hypothesis 37. Such answers as in question 36 are useful only if they: A) are repeatable B) fit all the data C) furnish testable predictions D) are true E) are of general significance 38. The law of segregation states that: A) the movement of each gene is independent of all other genes B) cross-overs result in the unlinking of genes C) each parent passes only 1 of its 2 alleles to each offspring D) sex cells cannot be modified by somatic mutations 39. The law of segregation is true: A) only if the genes are sex-linked B) only if the genes are unlinked C) only if the genes are on separate chromosomes D) in all normal cases of meiotic sexual reproduction 40. Migration of chromosomes toward opposite ends of the cell occurs in: A) prophase B) metaphase C) prometaphase D) telophase E) anaphase F) interphase 41. Replication of chromosomes occurs in (Use the choices in question 40) 42. Crossing-over (recombination) occurs in (Use the choices in question 40) 43. Folds in the inner membrane of a mitochondrion are: A) thylakoids B) grana C) christae D) desmosomes E) reticula 44. occurs associated with the membranes in question 43. A) protein synthesis B) dark reactions C) ATP production in electron transport chains D) light reactions E) Kreb s cycle 45. If 75 of 100 offspring show the dominant trait, the parents probably were: A) both recessive B) both homozygous dominant C) both heterozygous D) one heterozygous, one homozygous dominant E) one heterozygous, one homozygous recessive 46. An organelle filled with digestive enzymes is a(n): A) lysosome B) ribosome C) desmosome D) food vacuole E) Golgi body 47. The organelle in question 46 is manufactured: A) on a DNA template B) as a result of endocytosis C) by the Golgi body D) by pinching off the ER E) as a stack of membranes 48. During prophase of mitosis a chromosome can be see to be composed of two chromatids held together by a(n): A) centriole B) spindle C) synapse D) centromere E) equatorial plane

49. Which of the following is not made up of microtubules? A) cytoskeleton B) cell wall C) flagellum D) basal body E) spindle 50. Membrane permeability is primarily determined by: A) pore size B) lipids in the membrane C) thickness of the membrane D) proteins in the membrane E) concentration differences across the membrane 51. Single-celled eukaryote organisms are in the kingdom: A) Protista B) Animalia C) Plantae D) Monera E) Fungi 52. Which of the following is part of a codon? A) operator B) cistron C) promoter D) nucleotide E) all of the above 53. Which element is found in nucleic acids but not in proteins? A) nitrogen B) hydrogen C) phosphorus D) carbon E) sulfur Part II True-false 1 pt. each. 1. O2 was common in the atmosphere of the Earth shortly after its formation. 2. Under normal environmental conditions, we expect a ratio of 3 dominant to every one recessive in a population of individuals. 3. Evolution would cease immediately if there were no mutations. 4. Hybrids between reproductively isolated species can occur. 5. Pesticides actually select in favor of resistance in pests. 6. Natural selection will necessarily increase the adaptation of a population to its environment. 7. Mechanical isolation is an example of a postmating isolating mechanism. 8. Evolution is a change in the gene pool of a population. 9. A permease and ATP are both necessary for active transport. 10. Water is a polar substance, thus other polar substances will generally dissolve easily in it. 11. The phenotypic ratio1:2:1 is characteristic of the F2 generation in a simple monohybrid cross with dominant/recessive alleles..

12. The closer together two linked genes are, the more frequent will be cross-overs between them. 13. Normal base pairing in DNA is always one purine with one pyrimidine. 14. Glycolysis occurs in mitochondria. Part III Fill-in 1 pt. each blank. 1. The oldest eucaryotic fossils found on Earth are about years old. Evidence indicates that atmospheric concentration was increasing at about the same time. This atmospheric gas derives from the process of in the cells of autotrophs. 2. Differential reproduction as a result of differential mating is termed. There are 2 components to this process: 1) competition for access to mates, termed, and 2) mate choice preferences for certain phenotypes in a mate, termed. 3. Shortly after the Earth s formation, its oceans are thought to have become a socalled, containing a high concentration of biological monomers in them. To polymerize these monomers calls for the removal of from them. One likely method of doing that is to. 4. is the only way to create brand new alleles in a closed gene pool. 5. Any behavioral interaction between members of the same species is called. If both members in such an interaction benefit, it is called. These latter types of interactions are probably fairly common in species (True/false) 6. Changes in gene pools due to movements of individuals between populations is called. This likely does not occur in most real populations. (True/false) 7. A(n) is a sequence of three mrna bases. It carries enough information to specify a single in a protein.

8. Continuous traits are typically polygenic, that is they are influenced by many different. If two parents differ in a continuous trait, their offspring are likely to have a(n) phenotype. 9. The irregular folding pattern seen in a protein is called its structure. Two forces that can influence such folding patterns are and. Part IV Short Answer Pts as indicated. 1. Define: (3 pts each) A. repressor protein B. phylum C. mutation D. semi-conservative replication E. ribosome F. purine base G. exocytosis H. genetic drift I. temporal isolation J. directional selection K. speciation

2. Describe the factors needed to create a new species. Describe the process by which most new species are thought to be created in nature. (10 pts) 3. Why is DNA not likely to have been the first replicable molecule in the origin of life? Why is RNA considered to be a more likely candidate for a first replicable molecule? (12 pts) 4. What is the name of the most recent era in the fossil record. List the periods in this era and give one major biological event that occurred in each. (8 pts)

5. Define sexual selection. Distinguish between its two components. (8 pts) 6. Outline in flow chart fashion how information stored in a DNA molecule can be processed to control cell characteristics. (6 pts) 7. Forked hair is a sex-linked recessive trait in fruit flies. A forked hair female is mated to a normal hair male. What is the outcome in the F1 generation; in the F2? (10 pts)

8. List in order: (no. of pts = the no. of items in the list) A. the major taxa in biological classification (7 pts) B. the steps in the scientific method (5 pts) C. the periods in the Mesozoic Era (3 pts) 9. Describe the general function of each of the 3 types of RNA used in protein synthesis. (9 pts)

MERRY CHRISTMAS FROM AN OLD FOSSIL