Ch22&23 Test Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The two most abundant compounds in the atmosphere are carbon dioxide and a. particulates. c. water vapor. b. ozone. d. nitrogen oxide. 2. Which of the following pairs are NOT components of the atmosphere? a. nitrogen/oxygen c. water vapor/particulates b. ozone/argon d. atmospheric pressure/gravity 3. All of the following are particulates in the atmosphere EXCEPT a. dust. c. pollen. b. salt. d. gases. 4. Which processes remove water vapor from the air? a. evaporation and transpiration c. condensation and precipitation b. transpiration and condensation d. precipitation and evaporation 5. Which of the following is NOT a common source of particulates? a. volcanic dust c. chlorofluorocarbons b. salt particles d. pollen 6. Atmospheric pressure is measured with a(n) a. altimeter. c. scale. b. barometer. d. thermometer. 7. Which of the following uses the bending sides of a sealed metal container to measure atmospheric pressure? a. ionosphere c. thermometer b. mercurial barometer d. aneroid barometer 8. Interactions between solar radiation and the ionosphere cause a. auroras. c. temperature inversions.
b. smog. d. scattering. 9. In general, the Coriolis effect is noticeable only on objects that move very fast or travel a. long distances. c. from north to south. b. during daylight hours. d. along a wind belt. 10. Which of the following is an effect of air pollution? a. chlorofluorocarbons c. pollen distribution b. volcanic ash dispersal d. destruction of the ozone layer 11. Temperature inversions can intensify the effect of smog when cool, polluted ground air is trapped by a. a front. c. the ocean. b. mountains. d. warm air. 12. Energy from the sun travels to Earth as a. visible light. c. ultraviolet rays. b. infrared rays. d. radiation. 13. The solar radiation least absorbed by the layers of the atmosphere before reaching Earth is a. visible light. c. X rays. b. radio waves. d. ultraviolet rays. 14. Average temperatures are lower near the poles because sunlight strikes the ground at an angle a. greater than 90º. c. of 90º. b. smaller than 90º. d. of 180º. 15. Albedo is the fraction of solar radiation reaching Earth that is a. refracted. c. reflected. b. destroyed. d. absorbed. 16. Radiation whose wavelengths are among the shortest are a. X rays. c. infrared waves. b. visible light. d. radio waves.
17. About how much of the solar energy that reaches Earth is absorbed by the land, oceans, and atmosphere? a. 20% c. 50% b. 30% d. 70% 18. After Earth absorbs infrared rays that heat the ground, what kind of energy does the atmosphere absorb from the ground? a. albedo c. solar b. thermal d. mirage 19. A delay between Earth s absorption of solar energy and an increase in temperature makes the warmest part of a day a. morning. c. afternoon. b. noon. d. evening. 20. Solar radiation that is not reflected back into the atmosphere a. is destroyed by ozone. c. is changed to radio waves. b. is absorbed by surface materials. d. becomes visible. 21. The warming of the surface and lower atmosphere of Earth that occurs when carbon dioxide, water vapor, and other gases in the air absorb and reradiate infrared radiation is known as a. thermal heat. c. greenhouse effect. b. electromagnetic energy. d. radiation. 22. The narrow bands of high speed winds that blow in the upper atmosphere are called a. trade winds. c. horse latitudes. b. convection cells. d. jet streams. 23. The trade winds of the Northern and Southern Hemispheres meet at the equator in a narrow zone of weak variable winds called a. the doldrums. c. subtropical jet streams. b. the wind belt. d. prevailing winds. 24. Which of the following do NOT make up a global wind belt? a. trade winds c. polar easterlies b. westerlies d. fronts
25. Local wind patterns are affected by local conditions and a. temperatures. c. westerlies. b. jet streams. d. rainfall. 26. Prevailing winds that blow throughout the contiguous United States are called a. doldrums. c. polar easterlies. b. westerlies. d. trade winds. 27. Because of the Coriolis effect, an object that travels north from the equator will curve to the a. north. c. east. b. south. d. west. 28. Winds that extend over distances of less than 100 km are a. gales. c. light air. b. storms. d. breezes. 29. What kind of wind blows cool air from land to water? a. sea breeze c. land breeze b. mountain breeze d. valley breeze 30. From where does most evaporation come? a. plants c. equatorial oceans b. burning fuels d. lakes 31. What might happen if enough energy is absorbed by liquid water? a. Condensation will occur. c. The water will change to a gas. b. The water will change to ice. d. The water will never change. 32. When the air temperature decreases, the rate of evaporation a. decreases. c. may increase or decrease. b. increases. d. remains constant. 33. When ice melts, latent heat
a. is released. c. evaporates. b. is absorbed. d. is sublimated. 34. The mass of water vapor contained in a given volume of air is a. humidity. c. relative humidity. b. absolute humidity. d. dew point. 35. An instrument that measures relative humidity with two identical thermometers is a(n) a. dew cell. c. radiosonde. b. hair hygrometer. d. psychrometer. 36. If the temperature stays the same and the air becomes more moist, the relative humidity will a. decrease. c. increase and then decrease. b. increase. d. remain constant. 37. The mass of water vapor in a unit of air relative to the mass of the dry air is a. humidity. c. the absolute humidity. b. the relative humidity. d. the mixing ratio. 38. The dew point is the temperature at which the rate of condensation a. equals the rate of evaporation. c. exceeds the rate of evaporation. b. lowers the rate of evaporation. d. raises the rate of evaporation. 39. Which of the following cloud types occurs at the highest altitudes? a. stratus c. cirrus b. nimbus d. cumulus 40. What must be present in order for clouds to form? a. adiabatic cooling c. condensation nuclei b. a large solid surface d. a condensation level 41. Condensation nuclei are a. ice and dust particles. c. bodies of moist air. b. large solid surfaces. d. icy clouds.
42. The process by which the temperature of an air mass decreases as the air mass moves over a cold surface is a. adiabatic cooling. c. lifting. b. mixing. d. advective cooling. 43. The base of the clouds marks the a. adiabatic lapse rate. c. condensation nuclei. b. condensation level. d. dew point. 44. Compared to the rate for clear air, the adiabatic lapse rate for cloudy air is a. slower. c. larger. b. faster. d. the same. 45. Some clouds form when a body of moist air combines with another body of moist air with a different temperature is a process called a. adiabatic cooling. c. lifting. b. mixing. d. advective cooling. 46. Where do middle clouds form? a. between 1,000 and 2,000 m c. between 6,000 and 8,000 m b. between 2,000 and 6,000 m d. between 8,000 and 10,000 m 47. A cloud whose name has the prefix nimbo or the suffix nimbus is a. high. c. precipitation free. b. layered. d. rain producing. 48. Clouds that often bring thunderstorms are a. nimbostratus. c. altocumulus. b. stratocumulus. d. cumulonimbus. 49. Upslope fog forms through a. adiabatic cooling. c. lifting and cooling. b. mixing and warming. d. advective cooling.
50. Fog that is common along coasts, where warm, moist air over the water moves over land is a. radiation fog. c. upslope fog. b. advection fog. d. steam fog.
Ch22&23 Test Answer Section MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 2. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 3. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 4. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 5. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 6. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 7. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 8. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 9. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 10. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 OBJ: 4 11. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 OBJ: 4 12. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 13. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 14. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2
15. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 16. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 17. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 18. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 19. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 20. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 21. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 22. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 3 23. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 3 24. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 3 25. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 3 26. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 3 27. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 3 28. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 3 29. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 3 30. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1
31. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 32. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 33. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 34. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 35. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 36. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 37. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 38. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 39. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 1 40. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 41. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 42. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 43. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 44. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 45. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 46. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2
47. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 48. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 49. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 OBJ: 4 50. ANS: B PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 2 OBJ: 4