# Exercise Sheet 3 - Solutions

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1 Algebraic Geometry D-MATH, FS 2016 Prof. Pandharipande Exercise Sheet 3 - Solutions 1. Prove the following basic facts about algebraic maps. a) For f : X Y and g : Y Z algebraic morphisms of quasi-projective varieties, the composition g f : X Z is algebraic. b) For affine varieties V C n, W C m, the algebraic maps V W are exactly given by f : V C m, v (f 1 (v),..., f m (v)), where f 1,..., f m Γ(V ) are algebraic functions on V such that the image of the map f above is contained in W. c) For quasi-projective varieties X, Y and a cover X = i I V i of X with open subsets V i, a map ϕ : X Y is algebraic if and only if the restriction ϕ Vi is algebraic for all i I. In particular, for an open cover Y = i I W i it suffices to check that ϕ 1 (W i ) is open in X and that is algebraic for all i I. ϕ ϕ 1 (W i ) : ϕ 1 (W i ) W i d) Show that the statement in b) remains true if V is a quasi-projective variety. e) If X P n is a quasi-projective variety and if F 0,..., F m C[Z 0,..., Z m ] are homogeneous polynomials of the same degree, which do not have a common zero on X, then Solution defines an algebraic morphism. F : X P m, ξ [F 0 (ξ),..., F m (ξ)] a) The map g f is continuous with respect to the Zariski topology as the composition of two continuous functions. For W Z open and h : W C algebraic, we have that h g : g 1 (W ) C is algebraic because g is algebraic and then h g f : f 1 (g 1 (W )) C is algebraic as f is algebraic.

2 b) First for f 1,..., f m Γ(V ) such that f = (f 1,..., f m ) has image in W, the map f is algebraic. Indeed, for W W a closed set cut out by polynomials g 1,..., g r C[y 1,..., y m ], the set f 1 (W ) is cut out in V by the equations g i (f 1 (x 1,..., x n ),..., f m (x 1,..., x n )) = 0 for i = 1,..., r. As all g i and f j are given by polynomials (recall Γ(V ) = C[x 1,..., x n ]/I(V )), these equations are again polynomials, so indeed f 1 (W ) is a closed set. On the other hand let S W be open and h : S C be algebraic. Then locally, h is given as the quotient h = g 1 /g 2 for two polynomials g 1, g 2. But then h f is locally given as the quotient of the polynomials g 1 (f 1,..., f m ) and g 2 (f 1,..., f m ), so it is again algebraic. Now assume conversely that f : V W is algebraic. Then as the functions y 1,..., y m : W C are algebraic, the compositions f 1 = y 1 f,..., f m = y m f are all algebraic functions on V, hence contained in Γ(V ). But then f = (f 1,..., f m ) is of the claimed form, finishing the proof. c) First we note that the inclusions V i X are algebraic. Indeed, the V i carry the subset topology from the Zariski topology on X and for an algebraic function on some open set W X, its restriction to V i W is still algebraic. Hence one direction of the statement above is clear: if ϕ is algebraic, we know ϕ Vi is just the composition of the inclusion V i X with the map ϕ and so it is again algebraic. On the other hand let all the ϕ Vi be algebraic. Then, as continuity of a function can be checked on an open cover of the domain, the function ϕ is continuous. On the other hand, for any algebraic function h on an open subset W Y, the function h ϕ defined on ϕ 1 (W ) is algebraic on all open sets ϕ 1 (W ) V i by assumption, and these sets cover ϕ 1 (W ). But the definition of an algebraic function can be checked locally, so indeed h ϕ is algebraic. d) Let V = i I V i be a cover of V by affine varieties V i. Then a map f = (f 1,..., f n ) : V W is algebraic iff f Vi is algebraic for all i I. But now we are in the situation of b), so f Vi is algebraic iff all component functions f j Vi are algebraic. Again using the last exercise part, this is the case iff the functions f j are algebraic, which finishes the proof. e) One verifies immediately that the fact that all F i have the same degree implies that F is well-defined, that is independent of the representative ξ C n+1 \{0} of [ξ] X P n. By the previous exercise, we may check that F is algebraic on the preimages of an open cover of P m. Let us choose the standard open cover P m = m i=0 U i with U i = {[x 0,..., x m ] : x i 0} = C m. We have F 1 (U i ) = X \ V (F i ) is indeed an open set and here we have F : F 1 (U i ) U i ( C n ) F [ξ] [F 0 (ξ),..., F m (ξ)] 0 (ξ),..., F i(ξ),..., Fm(ξ) F i (ξ) F i (ξ) F i. (ξ) But all functions F j F i is algebraic. are algebraic by definition, so by part d) the map F

3 2. (a) Show that the algebraic isomorphisms C C are exactly given by x ax + b for a C, b C. (b) Show that the algebraic isomorphisms P 1 P 1 are exactly given by ( ) a b ϕ A : [x, y] [ax + by, cx + dy] for A = GL c d 2. Solution (a) The algebraic functions C C are exactly the polynomials C[x]. So assume that f, g C[x] are such polynomials defining mutually inverse functions C C. Then f(g(x)) = x, but note that the polynomial f g has degree deg(f)deg(g) = 1. Thus deg(f) = deg(g) = 1, so indeed f(x) = ax + b. Clearly, f is injective iff a 0. In this case, the inverse g is given by g(y) = a 1 y a 1 b, so indeed it is also algebraic. (b) Note first that by Exercise 1, part e), the map ϕ A is algebraic, because the two homogeneous polynomials ax + by and cx + dy have a common zero [x, y] iff the vectors (a, b), (c, d) are linearly dependent. Moreover, the inverse of ϕ A is given by ϕ 1 A = ϕ A 1. This follows from Exercise 5 on Sheet 2, because ϕ A ϕ B = ϕ AB. Now let ϕ : P 1 P 1 be an isomorphism. We want to show ϕ = ϕ A for some A GL 2. Let p = ϕ 1 ([0, 1]) and q = ϕ 1 ([1, 0]). By replacing ϕ with ϕ ϕ B for a different isomorphism ϕ B sending [0, 1] to p and [1, 0] to q, we may assume p = [0, 1], q = [1, 0]. Now ϕ defines an isomorphism C ϕ = U i Ui = C for i = 0, 1. By the previous exercise part, we know that ϕ must then be given as ϕ U0 : [1, z] [1, γz + δ], ϕ U1 : [w, 1] [αw + β, 1], where γ, α 0. In order for these functions to coincide on U 0 U 1, we need γz + δ = 1 α 1 z + β for z C. Multiplying with the denominator on the right and expanding, we obtain the equations αδ = 0, γβ = 0 and αγ + βδ = 1. The first two imply δ = β = 0 and thus the third reads α = γ 1. Then one verifies, that ϕ agrees with the function ϕ A for ( ) 1 0 A =. 0 γ 3. Find with proof all integer solutions (x, y, z) of the equation x 2 + y 2 = z 2. Solution Apart from the trivial solution (0, 0, 0) we can always assume z 0, because squares of real numbers are always nonnegative. Moreover, for (x, y, z) a solution, also (kx, ky, kz) is also a solution. We can thus first determine all

4 solutions (x, y, z) with x, y, z coprime (which we call primitive solutions) and then obtain all solutions simply as multiples of these. Now for a primitive solution x 2 +y 2 = z 2, we naturally have (x/z) 2 +(y/z) 2 = 1 and the rational numbers p = x/z, q = y/z uniquely determine x, y, z up to a sign (as z is the lowest common denominator of p, q). Thus we can equivalently try to classify rational solutions (p, q) of p 2 + q 2 = 1. We know that (1, 0) is certainly a solution and for (p, q) another one, the line through (p, q) and (1, 0) has nonzero, rational slope m = q/(p 1). On the other hand, for m Q \ {0}, the line q = m(p 1) intersects the circle V (p 2 + q 2 1) in (1, 0) and one distinct other point. (p, q) q (1, 0) p m To compute this point, we insert q = m(p 1) into the above equation and obtain p 2 + (m(p 1)) 2 = 1. But we already know the solution p = 1 so we can draw out a factor p 1 p m 2 (p 1) 2 = (p 1)(p m 2 (p 1)) = 0 and are left with the equation p m 2 (p 1) = 0 with unique solution p = (m 2 1)/(m 2 + 1). We insert and obtain q = m(p 1) = 2m/(m 2 + 1). Again, as m is rational, the point (p, q) is rational. Thus we have seen, that the correspondence from rational solutions (p, q) (1, 0) of p 2 + q 2 = 1 to rational numbers m is one-to-one. To reconstruct the integers x, y, z assume that m = a/b for b 0 and a, b coprime. Then we insert and obtain p = a2 b 2 a 2 + b 2, q = 2ab a 2 + b 2. It is tempting to now write x = a 2 b 2, y = 2ab, z = a 2 + b 2, but we can only conclude this if the three integers a 2 b 2, a 2 + b 2 and 2ab are coprime. But any prime Q dividing all of them must also divide (a 2 + b 2 ) (a 2 b 2 ) = 2b 2, so Q = 2 or Q b. The possibility Q b can be excluded, as then also Q a 2, a contradiction to a, b coprime. If Q = 2 divides a 2 b 2 then necessarily both a, b are odd (they cannot both be even as they are supposed to be coprime). Then in q = 2ab/(a 2 + b 2 ) we

5 can divide denominator and numerator by 2 and we see that the denominator is then odd, so any y in a triple (x, y, z) coming from this q is odd. Now observe that for x 2 + y 2 = z 2 with at least one of x, y, z odd, we must have that z and exactly one of x, y is odd. Indeed, odd squares are congruent to 1 modulo 4, so if both x, y were odd, the term x 2 + y 2 would be even, but congruent to 2 modulo 4, hence not a square. This would give a contradiction. Hence, by permuting x, y we can assume that x is odd and y is even. As a result of the above paragraph, all triples (x, y, z) with y even must have a 2 b 2 odd, so exactly one of a, b is odd. In this case, the numbers a 2 b 2, a 2 + b 2, 2ab are coprime. Thus all primitive triples x, y, z with x 2 + y 2 = z 2 are given by x = a 2 b 2, y = 2ab, z = a 2 + b 2 or x = 2ab, y = a 2 b 2, z = a 2 + b 2 with a, b coprime and exactly one of a, b odd. We obtain all possible triples by multiplying the ones above by some k Z. Due March 18.

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