Name (LAST, First):, Block (circle): Date: / /

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1 Name (LAST, First):, Block (circle): Date: / / MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1) A new car manufacturer advertises that their car can go ʺfrom zero to sixty in 8 sʺ. This is a description of A) average speed. B) average acceleration. C) instantaneous speed. D) instantaneous acceleration. 5) In Fig. 2-1, what is the velocity at t = 4.0 s? A) 0 B) -40 m/s C) 20 m/s D) 10 m/s 6) In Fig. 2-1, what is the average velocity from 0 to 4.0 s? A) 20 m/s B) 0 C) 10 m/s D) -40 m/s 2) An object moving in the +x axis experiences an acceleration of 2.0 m/s2. This means the object is A) traveling at 2.0 m/s in every second. B) increasing its velocity by 2.0 m/s in every second. C) changing its velocity by 2.0 m/s. D) traveling at 2.0 m in every second. 3) When an object is released from rest and falls in the absence of friction, which of the following is true concerning its motion? A) Its acceleration is constant. B) Both its acceleration and its velocity are constant. C) Its velocity is constant. D) Neither its acceleration nor its velocity is constant. FIGURE 2-2 7) In Fig. 2-2, what is the acceleration at 1.0 s? A) -2.5 m/s2 B) 10 m/s2 C) 0 D) 2.0 m/s2 8) In Fig. 2-2, what is the acceleration at 3.0 s? A) 2.0 m/s2 B) -2.5 m/s2 C) 0 D) 10 m/s2 9) In Fig. 2-2, what is the displacement from 0 to 8.0 s? A) 80 m B) 60 m C) 20 m D) 40 m 10) Which one of the following is an example of a vector quantity? A) area B) mass C) distance D) velocity FIGURE 2-1 4) In Fig. 2-1, what is the velocity at t = 1.0 s? A) 0 B) -40 m/s C) 10 m/s D) 20 m/s 11) Two vectors, of magnitudes 20 and 50, are added. Which one of the following is a possible answer for the magnitude of the resultant? A) 20 B) 40 C) 10 D) 80 1

2 12) If the acceleration of an object is always directed perpendicular to its velocity, A) the object is turning. B) the object is speeding up. C) this situation would not be physically possible. D) the object is slowing down. 13) A bullet is fired horizontally, and at the same instant a second bullet is dropped from the same height. Ignore air resistance. Compare the times of fall of the two bullets. A) The dropped bullet hits first. B) They hit at the same time. C) The fired bullet hits first. D) cannot tell without knowing the masses 14) A pilot drops a bomb from a plane flying horizontally at a constant speed. Neglecting air resistance, when the bomb hits the ground the horizontal location of the plane will A) be over the bomb. B) be behind the bomb. C) depend on the speed of the plane when the bomb was released. D) be in front of the bomb. 15) A rocket moves through empty space in a straight line with constant speed. It is far from the gravitational effect of any star or planet. Under these conditions, the force that must be applied to the rocket in order to sustain its motion is A) zero. B) equal to its mass. C) equal to its weight. D) dependent on how fast it is moving. 16) A constant net force acts on an object. Describe the motion of the object. A) increasing acceleration B) constant acceleration C) constant speed D) constant velocity 17) The acceleration of an object is inversely proportional to A) its mass. B) its velocity. C) its position. D) the net force acting on it. 18) A net force F accelerates a mass m with an acceleration a. If the same net force is applied to mass 2m, then the acceleration will be A) 4a. B) a/4. C) a/2. D) 2a. 19) If you exert a force F on an object, the force which the object exerts on you will A) depend on whether or not you are moving. B) depend on the relative masses of you and the object. C) depend on whether or not the object is moving. D) always be F. 20) Action-reaction forces are A) unequal in magnitude but point in the same direction. B) unequal in magnitude and point in opposite directions C) equal in magnitude but point in opposite directions. D) equal in magnitude and point in the same direction. 21) A 20-ton truck collides with a 1500-lb car and causes a lot of damage to the car. Since a lot of damage is done on the car A) the force on the truck is equal to the force on the car. B) the force on the truck is smaller than the force on the car. C) the truck did not slow down during the collision. D) the force on the truck is greater then the force on the car. 22) An object of mass m sits on a flat table. The Earth pulls on this object with force mg, which we will call the action force. What is the reaction force? A) The table pushing up on the object with force mg. B) The object pulling upward on the Earth with force mg. C) The table pushing down on the floor with force mg. D) The object pushing down on the table with force mg. 2

3 23) A golf club hits a golf ball with a force of 2400 N. The golf ball hits the club with a force A) slightly less than 2400 N. B) exactly 2400 N. C) close to 0 N. D) slightly more than 2400 N. 24) Mass and weight A) are both measured in kilograms. B) are exactly equal. C) are two different quantities. D) both measure the same thing. 25) A packing crate slides down an inclined ramp at constant velocity. Thus we can deduce that A) it may be accelerating. B) a net downward force is acting on it. C) a frictional force is acting on it. D) it is not acted on by appreciable gravitational force. 26) A block of mass M slides down a frictionless plane inclined at an angle θ with the horizontal. The gravitational force is directed A) toward the center of the Earth. B) perpendicular to the plane. C) parallel to the plane in the same direction as the movement of the block. D) parallel to the plane in the opposite direction as the movement of the block 27) Consider a particle moving with constant speed such that its acceleration of constant magnitude is always perpendicular to its velocity. A) It is moving in a parabola. B) It is moving in a straight line. C) It is moving in a circle. D) None of the above is definitely true all of the time. 28) The gravitational force between two objects is inversely proportional to A) the square of the distance between the two objects. B) the product of the two objects. C) the distance between the two objects. D) the square of the product of the two objects. 29) Two objects attract each other gravitationally. If the distance between their centers is cut in half, the gravitational force A) is cut to one fourth. B) quadruples C) doubles. D) is cut in half. 30) Compared to its mass on the Earth, the mass of an object on the Moon is A) less. B) half as much. C) the same. D) more. 31) A spaceship is traveling to the Moon. At what point is it beyond the pull of Earthʹs gravity? A) when it is half-way there B) when it gets above the atmosphere C) when it is closer to the Moon than it is to Earth D) It is never beyond the pull of Earthʹs gravity. 32) If you push twice as hard against a stationary brick wall, the amount of work you do A) remains constant but non-zero. B) is cut in half. C) remains constant at zero. D) doubles. 33) If you walk 5.0 m horizontally forward at a constant velocity carrying a 10-N object, the amount of work you do is A) less than 50 J, but more than 0 J. B) equal to 50 J. C) more than 50 J. D) zero. 34) If the net work done on an object is positive, then the objectʹs kinetic energy A) is zero. B) decreases. C) increases. D) remains the same. 35) The quantity mgy is A) the kinetic energy of the object. B) the gravitational potential energy of the object. C) the power supplied to the object by the force. D) the work done on the object by the force. 3

4 36) The quantity 1/2 kx2 is A) the work done on the object by the force. B) the elastic potential energy of the object. C) the power supplied to the object by the force. D) the kinetic energy of the object. 37) The total mechanical energy of a system A) is either all kinetic energy or all potential energy, at any one instant. B) is equally divided between kinetic energy and potential energy. C) can never be negative. D) is constant, only if conservative forces act. 38) An acorn falls from a tree. Compare its kinetic energy K, to its potential energy U. A) K decreases and U decreases. B) K increases and U decreases. C) K decreases and U increases. D) K increases and U increases. 39) Compared to yesterday, you did 3 times the work in one-third the time. To do so, your power output must have been A) 9 times yesterdayʹs power output. B) 3 times yesterdayʹs power output. C) the same as yesterdayʹs power output. D) one-third of yesterdayʹs power output. 40) For vibrational motion, the maximum displacement from the equilibrium point is called the A) frequency. B) period. C) wavelength. D) amplitude. 41) A mass on a spring undergoes SHM. When the mass passes through the equilibrium position, its instantaneous velocity A) is maximum. B) is zero. C) is less than maximum, but not zero. D) cannot be determined from the information given. 42) A mass is attached to a vertical spring and bobs up and down between points A and B. Where is the mass located when its kinetic energy is a minimum? A) at either A or B B) one-fourth of the way between A and B C) midway between A and B D) none of the above 43) A mass is attached to a vertical spring and bobs up and down between points A and B. Where is the mass located when its potential energy is a maximum? A) midway between A and B B) at either A or B C) one-fourth of the way between A and B D) none of the above 44) In a wave, the maximum displacement of points of the wave from equilibrium is called the waveʹs A) amplitude. B) wavelength. C) speed. D) frequency. 45) The distance between successive crests on a wave is called the waveʹs A) frequency. B) speed. C) amplitude. D) wavelength. 46) For a wave, the frequency times the wavelength is the waveʹs A) amplitude. B) speed. C) intensity. D) power. 47) In seismology, the S wave is a transverse wave. As an S wave travels through the Earth, the relative motion between the S wave and the particles is A) first perpendicular, then parallel. B) parallel. C) first parallel, then perpendicular. D) perpendicular. 48) In seismology, the P wave is a longitudinal wave. As a P wave travels through the Earth, the relative motion between the P wave and the particles is A) first parallel, then perpendicular. B) perpendicular. C) first perpendicular, then parallel. D) parallel. 4

5 49) Two wave pulses with equal positive amplitudes pass each other on a string, one is traveling toward the right and the other toward the left. At the point that they occupy the same region of space at the same time A) a standing wave is produced. B) a traveling wave is produced. C) destructive interference occurs. D) constructive interference occurs. 50) Two wave pulses pass each other on a string. The one traveling toward the right has a positive amplitude, while the one traveling toward the left has an equal amplitude in the negative direction. At the point that they occupy the same region of space at the same time A) a standing wave is produced. B) a traveling wave is produced. C) constructive interference occurs. D) destructive interference occurs. 51) You double your distance from a sound source that is radiating equally in all directions. What happens to the intensity of the sound? It reduces to A) one-sixteenth its original value. B) one-half its original value. C) one-fourth its original value. D) none of the above 52) Which of the following increases as a sound becomes louder? A) frequency B) period C) wavelength D) amplitude E) velocity 53) What determines the ʺpitchʺ of a musical note? A) phase B) amplitude C) frequency D) wavelength 54) A sound source approaches a stationary observer. The frequency heard by the observer is A) the same as that of the source. B) higher than the source. C) equal to zero. D) lower than the source. 55) A sound source departs from a stationary observer. The frequency heard by the observer is A) lower than the source. B) equal to zero. C) the same as that of the source. D) higher than the source. 56) The process whereby heat flows by means of molecular collisions is referred to as A) convection. B) inversion. C) conduction. D) radiation. 57) By what primary heat transfer mechanism does one end of an iron bar become hot when the other end is placed in a flame? A) natural convection B) radiation C) conduction D) forced convection 58) The process whereby heat flows by the mass movement of molecules from one place to another is referred to as A) inversion. B) convection. C) conduction. D) radiation. 59) The process whereby heat flows in the absence of any medium is referred to as A) convection. B) inversion. C) radiation. D) conduction. 60) By what primary heat transfer mechanism does the Sun warm the Earth? A) convection B) radiation C) conduction D) all of the above in combination 61) Is it possible to transfer heat from a hot reservoir to a cold reservoir? A) Theoretically yes, but it hasnʹt been accomplished yet. B) No. C) Yes; this will happen naturally. D) Yes, but work will have to be done. 5

6 62) Is it possible to transfer heat from a cold reservoir to a hot reservoir? A) No. B) Theoretically yes, but it hasnʹt been accomplished yet. C) Yes; this will happen naturally. D) Yes, but work will have to be done. 63) The angle of incidence A) must equal the angle of reflection. B) is always less than the angle of reflection. C) may be greater than, less than, or equal to the angle of reflection. D) is always greater than the angle of reflection. 64) The principle on which mirrors work is A) polarization. B) reflection. C) refraction. D) dispersion. 68) For a beam of light, the direction of polarization is defined as A) the direction of the electric fieldʹs vibration. B) the beamʹs direction of travel. C) the direction of the magnetic fieldʹs vibration. D) the direction that is mutually perpendicular to the electric and magnetic field vectors. 69) The polarization of sunlight is greatest at A) both sunrise and sunset. B) sunset. C) midday. D) sunrise. 65) The principle which explains why a prism separates white light into different colors is A) refraction. B) total internal reflection. C) dispersion. D) polarization. 66) When a beam of light, which is traveling in glass, strikes an air boundary, there is A) a 90 phase change in the reflected beam. B) a 45 phase change in the reflected beam. C) a 180 phase change in the reflected beam. D) no phase change in the reflected beam. 67) What principle is responsible for the fact that certain sunglasses can reduce glare from reflected surfaces? A) diffraction B) refraction C) polarization D) total internal reflection 6

7 Answer Key Testname: PHYSICS REVIEW 1) B ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g

8 Answer Key Testname: PHYSICS REVIEW 46) B ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) B ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) D ID: ppa6g ) C ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g ) A ID: ppa6g