Important instructions:

Transcription

1 E/12/2018 Test Booklet Code: PAPER-1: PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet. Important instructions: 1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with only Black Ball Point Pen provided in the examination hall. 2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully. 3. The test is of 3 hours duration. 4. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4( four) marks for correct response. 6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 5 for correct response of each question. ¼ ( one-fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question( i.e. 1 mark) will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet. 7. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in any question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instructions 6 above. 8. For writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet use only Black Ball Point Pen. 9. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device, etc. except the Admit Card inside the examination room/ hall. 10. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in the last page of the booklet. 11. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 12. The CODE for this Booklet is A 6. Make sure that the CODE printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet and also tally the serial number of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet are the same as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet. 13. Do not fold or make any stray mark on the Answer Sheet. Name of the candidate (in Capital letters): Roll Number : in figures : in words Examination Centre Number Name of the examination Centre (in capital letters): Candidate s Signature: Invigilator s Signature:

2 PART A PHYSICS ALL THE GRAPHS/DIAGRAMS GIVEN ARE SCHEMATIC AND NOT DRAWN TO SCALE 1. A fish in water sees an object 24 cm above the surface of water. The height of object above the surface of water that will appear to fish is : ( = 4/ 32 cm 8 cm 24 cm 18 cm 2. The current in the given circuit is 8.31 A 6.82 A 4.92 A 2 A 3. What is the value of L for which the current is maximum in a series LCR circuit with C = 10 F and = 100 s -1 1 mh 10 mh 100 mh cannot be calculated 4. A transformer reduces 220 V to 11 V. the primary draws 5A of current and secondary 90 A. the efficiency of the transformer is R A =3 4.8V R C =6 R B =6 20% 40% 70% 90% 5. A transmitting antenna of height h and the receiving antenna of height 45 m are separated by a distance of 40 km for satisfactory communication in E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 1 LOS mode. Then the value of h is, (radius of earth is 6400 km) 15 m 20 m 30 m 25 m 6. A physical parameter a can be determined by measuring the parameters b,c,d and e using the relation a=. If the maximum errors in the measurement of b,c,d and e are b 1 %, c 1 %, d 1 % and e 1 %, then the maximum error in the value determined by the experiment is (b 1 c 1 d 1 e 1 ) % (b 1 c 1 d 1 e 1 )% ( b 1 c 1 d 1 e 1 )% ( b 1 c 1 d 1 e 1 )%

3 7. A particle starts moving rectilinearly at time t = 0 such that its velocity v changes with time t according to the equation v = t 2 t where t is in seconds and v is in m/s. find the time interval for which the particle retards. t 1 t 1 t 1 t 8. A particle starts from rest and travel a distance x with uniform acceleration, then moves uniformly a distance 2x and finally comes to rest after moving further 5x with uniform retardation. The ratio of maximum speed to average speed is 9. A gun is aimed at a target in a line of its barrel. The target is released and allowed to fall under gravity at the same instant the gun is fired. The bullet will Pass above the target Pass below the target Hit the target Certainly miss the target 10. If 4 3 and 6 8 then magnitude and direction of 5, will be 5, 10, 25, 11. When a force of 0.1 N is applied, the spring is stretched by 1.5 cm. the spring is cut into three parts and one part is stretched by 3 cm. find the force required for doing so 0.2 N 0.3 N 0.4 N 0.6N 12. The speed of a homogenous solid sphere after rolling down an inclined plane of vertical height h from rest without sliding is 13. Two metal rods A and B having their initial length in the ratio 2 : 3 and the coefficients of linear expansion in the ratio 3 : 4. When they are heated through the same temperature difference, the ratio of their linear expansion is 3 : 4 1 : 2 2 : 3 4 : 3 E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 2

4 14. Two wires of the same length and radius are joined end to end and loaded. If the Young s modulus of the material of the wires are Y 1 and Y 2, the combination behaves as a single wire of Young s modulus Y 1 + Y 2 Y 1 Y 2 ( 2 Y1 Y ) 2 2Y1 Y2 (Y1 Y2 ). 15. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed vertically in a liquid such that liquid rises to height h( less than the length of tube). Mass of the liquid in the capillary tube is m. if radius of the tube is increased by 50%, then mass of liquid that will rise in the tube is m 16. A uniform metre scale of mass, hinged at one end is held horizontally. If it is released, what would be its initial acceleration? g rad/s 2 g rad/s 2 2g rad/s 2 g rad/s A pipe closed at one end produces a fundamental note of 412Hz. It is cut into two pieces of equal length. The fundamental frequencies produced in the two pieces are 206 Hz, 41 Hz 824 Hz, 1648 Hz 412 Hz, 824 Hz 206 Hz, 824 Hz 18. A total charge Q is broken in two parts Q 1 and Q 2 and they are placed at a distance R from each other. The maximum force of repulsion between them will occur, if Q 2 Q/R, Q 1 Q Q/R Q 2 Q/4, Q 1 Q 2Q/3 Q 2 Q/4, Q 1 3Q/3 Q 1 Q/2, Q 2 Q/2. E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 3

5 19. Charges are placed at the corners of a square of side a as shown in figure. If the charge at A is in equilibrium, the ratio q 1 /q 2 is: 1 2 1/ The resultant capacitance between A and B in the following figure is : A B +q 1 1 F 6 F 2 F 4 F A -q 2 D B -q 2 +q 1 C 6 μf 6 μf 6 μf 4 μf 4 μf 6 μf 6 μf 6 μf 6 μf 21. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of 8 kmph. If the resultant velocity of the boat is 10 kmph, the river is flowing with a velocity of 12.8 kmph 6 kmph 8 kmph 18 kmph 22. The distance travelled by a freely falling body during 50 th second and 100 th second are in the ratio 1:2 49:99 99: : A wire has a mass g, radius mm and length cm. the maximum percentage error in the measurement of its density is E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 4

6 24. A wire breaks when subjected to a stress S. If is the density of the material of the wire, then the length of the wire so that it breaks by its own weight is gs 25. An air bubble is released from the bottom of a pond and is found to expand to thrice its original volume as it reached the surface. If the atmospheric pressure is 100 kpa, the absolute pressure at the bottom of lake in kpa is (assume no temperature variation) Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground where AB = a. The boy at B running in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity v 1. The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity v and catches the other boy in a time t, where t is a/ a/ ( v ) a/( v ) 27. A ball of mass m is projected with a velocity v at an angle If the air resistance is negligible, then total change in momentum when it strikes the ground is 2mv mv mv mv/ 28. A body of mass M hits normally a rigid wall with velocity V and bounces back with same velocity. The impulse experienced by the body is MV 1.5 MV 2MV zero 29. A 2 kg mass starts from rest on an inclined smooth surface with inclination 30 0 and length 2 m. How much will it travel before coming to rest on a frictional surface with frictional coefficient 0.25? 4m 6m 8 m 2m 30. A block of mass 1 kg lies on a horizontal in a truck. The coefficient of static E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 5

7 friction between the block and the surface is 0.6 if the acceleration of the truck is 5 ms -2. The frictional force acting on the block is 5N 6N 10N 15 N PART- B CHEMISTRY 31. Molecules whose mirror image is nonsuper imposable over them are known as chiral. Which one of the following is chiral in nature? 2-bromo butane 1- bromo butane 2-bromopropane 2-bromopropan-2-ol 32. AgNO 3 does not give precipitate with CHCl 3 because? CHCl 3 does not ionize water CHCl 3 does not react with AgNO 3 CHCl 3 is chemically inert e > d > b > a > c b > d > a > c > e d > e > c > b > a e > d > c > b > a 34. Iodoform test is not given by? 2- pentanone Ethanol Ethanal 3-pentanone 35. Which one of the following compound is not a protonic acid? SO 2 (OH) 2 B(OH) 3 PO(OH) 3 SO(OH) 2 none 33. Mark the correct order of decreasing acid strength of the following compounds. E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 6

8 36. Which of the products is formed when acetone is reacted with barium hydroxide solution?. 39. Which of the following pair is not in order for boiling point for 14, 15, 16 and 17 group? H 2 O > H 2 S HF > HCl CH 4 > SiH 4 NH 3 > PH Which one of the following arrangement represents increasing oxidation number of central atom? CrO - 2,ClO - 3, CrO , MnO If s and S are respectively solubility and solubility product of a sparingly soluble binary electrolyte, then S = s s = S 2 s = s = S 38. If uncertainly in position and momentum are equal, then uncertainly in velocity is: ClO 3 -,CrO 4 2-, MnO 4 -, CrO 2 - CrO 2 -,ClO 3 -, MnO 4 -, CrO 4 2- CrO 4 2-,MnO 4 -, CrO 2 -, ClO Which one of the following has most acidic hydrogen? Ethane Ethene Ethyne Benzene E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 7

9 42. Impure sample of ZnS contains 42.34% Zn. What is the percentage of pure ZnS in sample? 67% 63% 58% 37% 43. If de-broglie wavelength of a particle of mass m is 100 times of its velocity, then its value in terms of its mass (m) and planks constant (h) is In OF 2, number of bond pairs and lone pairs of electrons are respectively 2, 8 2, 6 2, 9 2, Which of the following does not exhibit zero entropy at absolute zero Benzene Glass Pyridine CCl The ionic conductance of and are 127 and 76 ohm- cm 2 respectively at infinite dilution. The equivalent conductance of BaCl 2 at infinite dilution will be? Which one of the following is less than zero during adsorption? ΔG. ΔS ΔH. All the above. 48. Which one of the following metals is purified by Van arkel method? Ga and In Zr and Ti Ag and Au Ni and Fe E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 8

10 49. A compound A C 5 H 10 Cl 2 on hydrolysis gives C 5 H 10 O which reacts with NH 2 OH, forms iodoform, but does not give Fehling test. A is formula of the first oxide is M 3 O 4, find that of the second? M 2 O 3. M 2 O MO 2. M 3 O Of the following which one is classified as polyester polymer? Terylene Bakelite 50. Which one of the following complex is diamagnetic in nature? [NiCl 4 ] 2- [Ni(CN) 4 ] 2- [CuCl 4 ] 2- [CoF 6 ] 3- Melamine Nylon If three atoms X, Y and Z crystallized in cubic solid lattice with X atoms at corners, Y atom at the body centre, and Z atoms at the edges. What is the formula of the compound? XYZ XY 3 Z XYZ 3 X 3 YZ 51. Two oxides of metal M contain 27.6% and 30% oxygen respectively. If the E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 9

11 54. A solution containing two components A and B shows negative deviation from Rault s law. Which of the following is most appropriate for that solution? ΔV mix 0 ΔH mix 0 A B interaction is weaker than A A and B B interaction A B interaction is stronger than A A and B B interaction 55. The rate of a reaction doubles when temperature changes from 300K to 310K. Activation energy for such reaction will be? (Given R= 8.314Jk -1 mol -1, log 2 = KJmol KJmol KJmol KJmol Elements of which of the following group of periodic table do not form hydrides? Group 7,8,9 Group 13 Group 15,16,17 Group The radius of hydrated ions of alkali metals.. down the group Decreases increases First increases then decreases none of these 58. Among the fluride of alkali metals the lowest solubility of LiF in water is due to? Ionic nature of LiF High lattice enthalpy High hydration enthalpy of Li ion Low ionization enthalpy of Li atom 59. Electrophilic addition reactions proceed in two steps. The first step involves the addition of an electrophile. Name the type of intermediate formed in the first step of the following addition reaction. H 3 C HC = CH 2 + H +? 2 Carbanion 1 Carbocation 2 Carbocation 1 Carbanion E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 10

12 60. Empirical formula of a compound is CH 2 O and its vapour density is 30. What is the molecular formula of compound? C 3 H 6 O 3 C 2 H 4 O 2 C 2 H 4 O CH 2 O PART C: MATHEMATICS 61. Area common to the curves y = and x = is 1 none of these 62. The solution of the differential equation 2x y = 3 represents straight lines circles parabolas ellipses 63. If = , = and = 3 +, then +t is perpendicular to c, if t is equal to The line of intersection of the planes. (3 - + ) = 5 and.( +4-2 ) = 12 is parallel to the vector The mean and variance of a random variable x having binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively. Then P(x = is 66. Given f(x) = log and g(x) =, then (fog)(x)= f 3f none of these E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 11

13 67. In the argand plane, all the complex numbers satisfying = 10 lie on straight line a circle an ellipse a parabola 68. If a 1,a 2,a 3,..are in A.P. such that a 1 +a 5 +a 10 +a 15 +a 20 +a 24 = 225, then a 1 +a 2 +a 3 +a 4 +a 23 +a 24 is equal to The solution of the inequation (-2, ) (2, (2, ) none of these, x R is 70. If the coefficient of in and the coefficient of in are equal, then ab is equal to If sin A+sin B = a and cos A+cos B= b, then cos (A+B) is equal to 72. If the foot of the perpendicular from the origin to a straight line is at the point (3,-, then the equation of the line is 3x-4y= 25 3x-4y+25=0 4x+3y-25 =0 4x-3y+25 = A man running a race course notes that the sum of the distances of two flag posts from him is always 10 metres and the distance between the flag posts is 8 metres. The area of the path he encloses in square metres is E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 12

14 74. The angle between the pair of the lines 2x 2 + 5xy + 2y 2 + 3x + 3y +1= 0 is cos -1 tan If, then 32 is equal to none of these 76. If = c, then is none of these 77. A point on the parabola y 2 = 18x at which the ordinate increases at twice the rate of the abscissa is (2, (2,- 78. The point on the curve y = (x- 2, where the tangents is parallel to the chord joining (3,0) and (4, is 79. dx = 80. 3sin( ) + c sin( +c sin ( +c sin ( +c If a, b,c are in A.P, then the value of none of these is E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 13

15 82. If f(x) =, then for what value of f(f(x)) = x? For a 3X 3 matrix A, if = 4, then equals 84. If = k, then k is if cos -1 = log a, then 86. If a = 16, b =24, c= 20, then is equal to ½ 87. Period of sin 2 is The number of solutions of x is zero one two none of these 89. How many different words can be formed by jumbling the letters in the word MISSISSIPPI in which no two S are adjacent? 8. 6 C 4. 7 C C C C 4. 8 C Two finite sets have m and n elements. The total number of subsets of the first set is 56 more than the total number of subsets of the second set. The value of m and n are: 7,6 6,3 5,1 8,7 E/12/2018 [Space for rough work] Page 14

16

17

18 Important Instructions: 1. The candidates should fill in the required particulars on the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with Black Ball Point Pen. 2. For writing / marking particulars on Side -2 of the Answer Sheet, use Black Ball Point Pen only. 3. The Candidates should not write their Roll Numbers anywhere else (except in the specified space) on the Test Booklet / Answer Sheet. 4. Out of the four option given for each questions, only one option is correct answer. 5. For each incorrect response (one fourth) marks of the total marks allotted to the question (i.e, 1 mark will be deducted from the total score. No deduction from the total score, however, will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer Sheet. 6. Handle the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Test Booklet Code and Answer Sheet Code), another set will be printed. 7. The candidates are not allowed to do any rough work or writing work on the Answer Sheet. All circulations / writing work are to be done in the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet itself, marked Space for Rough Work. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in four pages at the end of Booklet. 8. On completion of the test, the candidates must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room / Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 9. Each candidate must show on demand his / her Admit Card to the Invigilator. 10. No candidate, without special permission of the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his /her seat. 11. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the attendance sheet second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. The candidates are also required to put their left hand THUMB impression in the space provided in the Attendance Sheet. 12. Use of Electronic / Manual calculator and any Electronic device like mobile phone, pager etc. is prohibited. 13. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Examination body with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Examination body. 14. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer sheet shall be detached under any circumstances. 15. Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or any other material except the Admit Card inside the Examination room/ hall.