H Midterm Review. Page 1

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1 Name: H Midterm Review 1. Which statement compares the masses of two subatomic particles? A) The mass of an electron is greater than the mass of a proton. B) The mass of an electron is greater than the mass of a neutron. C) The mass of a proton is greater than the mass of an electron. D) The mass of a proton is greater than the mass of a neutron. 2. Which subatomic particles are located in the nucleus of a carbon atom? A) protons, only B) neutrons, only C) protons and neutrons D) protons and electron 3. The diagram below represents the nucleus of an atom. What are the atomic number and mass number of this atom? A) The atomic number is 9 and the mass number is 19. B) The atomic number is 9 and the mass number is 20. C) The atomic number is 11 and the mass number is 19. D) The atomic number is 11 and the mass number is The gold foil experiment led to the conclusion that each atom in the foil was composed mostly of empty space because most alpha particles directed at the foil A) passed through the foil B) remained trapped in the foil C) were deflected by the nuclei in gold atoms D) were deflected by the electrons in gold atoms 5. Which sequence represents a correct order of historical developments leading to the modern model of the atom? A) the atom is a hard sphere most of the atom is empty space electrons exist in orbitals outside the nucleus B) the atom is a hard sphere electrons exist in orbitals outside the nucleus most of the atom is empty space C) most of the atom is empty space electrons exist in orbitals outside the nucleus the atom is a hard sphere D) most of the atom is empty space the atom is a hard sphere electrons exist in orbitals outside the nucleus 6. Which conclusion is based on the gold foil experiment and the resulting model of the atom? A) An atom is mainly empty space, and the nucleus has a positive charge. B) An atom is mainly empty space, and the nucleus has a negative charge. C) An atom has hardly any empty space, and the nucleus has a positive charge. D) An atom has hardly any empty space, and the nucleus has a negative charge. 7. What is the total charge of the nucleus of a nitrogen atom? A) +5 B) +2 C) +7 D) An atom is electrically neutral because the A) number of protons equals the number of electrons B) number of protons equals the number of neutrons C) ratio of the number of neutrons to the number of electrons is 1:1 D) ratio of the number of neutrons to the number of protons is 2:1 Page 1

2 9. Compared to a proton, an electron has A) a greater quantity of charge and the same sign B) a greater quantity of charge and the opposite sign C) the same quantity of charge and the same sign D) the same quantity of charge and the opposite sign 10. Which particle has the least mass? A) B) C) 1 0n D) 0-1e 11. The greatest composition by mass in an atom of 17 8O is due to the total mass of its A) electrons B) neutrons C) positrons D) protons 12. The table below gives information about the nucleus of each of four atoms. How many different elements are represented by the nuclei in the table? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) All the isotopes of a given atom have A) the same mass number and the same atomic number B) the same mass number but different atomic numbers C) different mass numbers but the same atomic number D) different mass numbers and different atomic numbers 14. Which two notations represent different isotopes of the same element? A) and B) and C) and D) and Page 2

3 15. The atomic mass of element A is 63.6 atomic mass units. The only naturally occurring isotopes of element A are A-63 and A-65. The percent abundances in a naturally occurring sample of element A are closest to A) 31% A-63 and 69% A-65 B) 50% A-63 and 50% A-65 C) 69% A-63 and 31% A-65 D) 100% A-63 and 0% A The atomic mass of an element is calculated using the A) atomic number and the ratios of its naturally occurring isotopes B) atomic number and the half-lives of each of its isotopes C) masses and the ratios of its naturally occurring isotopes D) masses and the half-lives of each of its isotopes 17. A gram sample of naturally occurring boron contains grams of boron-10 (atomic mass = atomic mass units) and grams of boron-11 (atomic mass = atomic mass units). Which numerical setup can be used to determine the atomic mass of naturally occurring boron? A) (0.1978)(10.01) + (0.8022)(11.01) B) (0.8022)(10.01) + (0.1978)(11.01) C) (0.1978)(10.01)/(0.8022)(11.01) D) (0.8022)(10.01)/(0.1978)(11.01) 18. What is the total number of valence electrons in an atom of germanium in the ground state? A) 8 B) 2 C) 14 D) Which statement describes the relative energy of the electrons in the shells of a calcium atom? A) An electron in the first shell has more energy than an electron in the second shell. B) An electron in the first shell has the same amount of energy as an electron in the second shell. C) An electron in the third shell has more energy than an electron in the second shell. D) An electron in the third shell has less energy than an electron in the second shell. 20. What is the electron configuration of a sulfur atom in the ground state? A) 2 4 B) 2 6 C) D) Page 3

4 21. Given the bright-line spectra of three elements and the spectrum of a mixture formed from at least two of these elements: Which elements are present in this mixture? A) E and D, only B) E and G, only C) D and G, only D) D, E, and G 22. Which electron configuration represents an 26. The elements on the Periodic Table are excited state for a potassium atom? arranged in order of increasing A) B) C) D) The bright-line spectrum of sodium is produced when energy is A) absorbed as electrons move from higher to lower electron shells B) absorbed as electrons move from lower to higher electron shells C) released as electrons move from higher to lower electron shells D) released as electrons move from lower to higher electron shells 24. When the electrons of an excited atom return to a lower energy state, the energy emitted can result in the production of A) alpha particles B) isotopes C) protons D) spectra 25. In the electron cloud model of the atom, an orbital is defined as the most probable A) charge of an electron B) conductivity of an electron C) location of an electron D) mass of an electron A) atomic number B) mass number C) number of isotopes D) number of moles 27. If an element, X, can form an oxide that has the formula X 2O3, then element X would most likely be located on the Periodic Table in the same group as A) Ba B) Cd C) In D) Na 28. Which two elements have the most similar chemical properties? A) Be and Mg B) Ca and Br C) Cl and Ar D) Na and P 29. Element X is a solid that is brittle, lacks luster,and has six valence electrons. In which group on the Periodic Table would element X be found? A) 1 B) 2 C) 15 D) Which substance can not be broken down by a chemical change? A) methane B) propanal C) tungsten D) water 31. An element that is malleable and a good conductor of heat and electricity could have an atomic number of A) 16 B) 18 C) 29 D) 35 Page 4

5 32. Which two characteristics are associated with metals? A) low first ionization energy and low electronegativity B) low first ionization energy and high electronegativity C) high first ionization energy and low electronegativity D) high first ionization energy and high electronegativity 33. At STP, which element is brittle and not a conductor of electricity? A) S B) K C) Na D) Ar 34. An atom in the ground state has a stable valence electron configuration. This atom could be an atom of A) Al B) Cl C) Na D) Ne 35. Which element has both metallic and nonmetallic properties? A) Rb B) Rn C) Si D) Sr 36. Which element is a liquid at STP? A) argon B) bromine C) chlorine D) sulfur 37. Which statement describes oxygen gas, O2(g), and ozone gas, O3(g)? A) They have different molecular structures, only. B) They have different properties, only. C) They have different molecular structures and different properties. D) They have the same molecular structure and the same properties. 38. Which element has the greatest density at STP? A) calcium B) carbon C) chlorine D) copper 39. Which Lewis electron-dot diagram represents an atom in the ground state for a Group 13 element? A) B) C) D) 40. Which Lewis electron-dot diagram represents calcium oxide? A) B) C) D) 41. Which Lewis electron-dot diagram is correct for CO2? A) B) C) D) 42. Which Lewis electron-dot diagram is correct for a S 2 ion? A) B) C) D) 43. What is the net charge of an ion that has 8 protons, 9 neutrons, and 10 electrons? A) 1+ B) 2+ C) 1- D) When an atom of lithium loses an electron, the atom becomes a A) negative ion with a radius smaller than the radius of the atom B) negative ion with a radius larger than the radius of the atom C) positive ion with a radius smaller than the radius of the atom D) positive ion with a radius larger than the radius of the atom 45. Which characteristics both generally decrease when the elements in Period 3 on the Periodic Table are considered in order from left to right? A) nonmetallic properties and atomic radius B) nonmetallic properties and ionization energy C) metallic properties and atomic radius D) metallic properties and ionization energy Page 5

6 46. As the elements in Period 2 of the Periodic Table are considered in succession from left to right, there is a decrease in atomic radius with increasing atomic number. This may best be explained by the fact that the A) number of protons increases, and the number of shells of electrons remains the same B) number of protons increases, and the number of shells of electrons increases C) number of protons decreases, and the number of shells of electrons remains the same D) number of protons decreases, and the number of shells of electrons increases 47. An atom of which element has the greatest attraction for the electrons in a bond with a hydrogen atom? A) chlorine B) phosphorus C) silicon D) sulfur 48. Which trends appear as the elements in Period 3 are considered from left to right? A) Metallic character decreases, and electronegativity decreases. B) Metallic character decreases, and electronegativity increases. C) Metallic character increases, and electronegativity decreases. D) Metallic character increases, and electronegativity increases. 49. Which element requires the least amount of energy to remove the most loosely held electron from a gaseous atom in the ground state? A) bromine B) calcium C) sodium D) silver 50. Which Period 4 element has the most metallic properties? A) As B) Br C) Ge D) Sc 51. In Period 3, from left to right in order, each successive element will A) decrease in electronegativity B) decrease in atomic mass C) increase in number of protons D) increase in metallic character 52. Which element has the highest electrical conductivity? A) Mg B) H C) He D) Cl 53. Which substance can be broken down by chemical means? A) magnesium B) manganese C) mercury D) methanol 54. Which formula represents strontium phosphate? A) SrPO4 B) Sr3PO8 C) Sr2(PO4)3 D) Sr3(PO4)2 55. What is the chemical formula for iron(iii) oxide? A) FeO B) Fe2O3 C) Fe3O D) Fe3O2 56. Element X reacts with iron to form two different compounds with the formulas FeX and Fe2X3. To which group on the Periodic Table does element X belong? A) Group 8 B) Group 2 C) Group 13 D) Group What is the chemical formula for copper(ii) hydroxide? A) CuOH B) CuOH2 C) Cu2(OH) D) Cu(OH)2 58. The correct chemical formula for iron(ii) sulfide is A) FeS B) Fe2S3 C) FeSO4 D) Fe2(SO4)3 59. Given the formula representing a hydrocarbon: The molecular formula and the empirical formula for this hydrocarbon are A) C5H10 and CH2 B) C5H10 and CH3 C) C4H8 and CH2 D) C4H8 and CH3 Page 6

7 60. A compound has the empirical formula CH2O and a gram-formula mass of 60. grams per mole. What is the molecular formula of this compound? A) CH2O B) C2H4O2 C) C3H8O D) C4H8O4 61. The gram-formula mass of NO2 is defined as the mass of A) one mole of NO2 B) one molecule of NO2 C) two moles of NO D) two molecules of NO 62. The gram-formula mass of (NH4)2CO3 is A) 46.0 g B) 64.0 g C) 78.0 g D) 96.0 g 63. What is the total number of oxygen atoms in the formula MgSO4 7 H2O? [The represents seven units of H2O attached to one unit of MgSO4.] A) 11 B) 7 C) 5 D) A sample of a compound contains 65.4 grams of zinc, 12.0 grams of carbon, and 48.0 grams of oxygen. What is the mole ratio of zinc to carbon to oxygen in this compound? A) 1:1:2 B) 1:1:3 C) 1:4:6 D) 5:1:4 65. The percent composition by mass of nitrogen in NH4OH (gram-formula mass = 35 grams/mole) is equal to A) 100 B) 100 C) 100 D) The percentage by mass of Br in the compound AlBr3 is closest to A) 10.% B) 25% C) 75% D) 90.% 67. Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: Which type of reaction is represented by this equation? A) decomposition B) double replacement C) single replacement D) synthesis 68. Given the reaction at kilopascals and 298 K: hydrogen gas + iodine gas This reaction is classified as hydrogen iodi A) endothermic, because heat is absorbed B) endothermic, because heat is released C) exothermic, because heat is absorbed D) exothermic, because heat is released 69. In which type of reaction do two or more substances combine to produce a single substance? A) synthesis B) decomposition C) single replacement D) double replacement 70. Which equation represents a decomposition reaction? A) CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) B) Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) 2Ag(s) + Cu(NO3)2(aq) C) 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(l) D) KOH(aq) + HCl(aq) KCl(aq) + H2O( l) Page 7

8 71. Given the balanced equation: AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) NaNO3 (aq) + AgCl(s) This reaction is classified as A) synthesis B) decomposition C) single replacement D) double replacement 72. Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: H + (aq) + OH (aq) H2O( ) + energy In this reaction there is a conservation of A) mass, only B) mass and charge, only C) charge and energy, only D) charge, energy, and mass 73. Which chemical equation is correctly balanced? A) H2(g) + O2(g) H2O(g) B) N2(g) + H2(g) NH3(g) C) 2NaCl(s) Na(s) + Cl2(g) D) 2KCl(s) 2K(s) + Cl2(g) 74. Given the unbalanced equation: When the equation is correctly balanced using the smallest whole-number coefficients, what is the coefficient of CO? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: 4NH3 + 5O2 4NO + 6H2O What is the minimum number of moles of O2 that are needed to completely react with 16 moles of NH3? A) 16 mol B) 20. mol C) 64 mol D) 80. mol 76. Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: C3H8(g) +5O2(g) 3CO2(g) + 4H2O(g) What is the total number of moles of O2(g) required for the complete combustion of 1.5 moles of C3H8(g)? A).30 mol B) 1.5 mol C) 4.5 mol D) 7.5 mol 77. Given the balanced equation representing the reaction between propane and oxygen: According to this equation, which ratio of oxygen to propane is correct? A) B) C) D) 78. Given the reaction: PbCl2(aq) + Na2CrO4(aq) PbCrO4(s) + 2 NaCl(aq) What is the total number of moles of NaCl formed when 2 moles of Na2CrO4 react completely? A) 1 mole B) 2 moles C) 3 moles D) 4 moles 79. Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: CaO(s) + CO2(g) CaCO3(s) + heat What is the total mass of CaO(s) that reacts completely with 88 grams of CO2(g) to produce 200. grams of CaCO3(s)? A) 56 g B) 88 g C) 112 g D) 288 g Page 8

9 80. Given the balanced equation representing a reaction: 2H2 + O2 2H2O What is the total mass of water formed when 8 grams of hydrogen reacts completely with 64 grams of oxygen? A) 18 g B) 36 g C) 56 g D) 72 g 81. Given the balanced particle-diagram equation: Which statement describes the type of change and the chemical properties of the product and reactants? A) The equation represents a physical change, with the product and reactants having different chemical properties. B) The equation represents a physical change, with the product and reactants having identical chemical properties. C) The equation represents a chemical change, with the product and reactants having different chemical properties. D) The equation represents a chemical change, with the product and reactants having identical chemical properties. 82. Particles are arranged in a crystal structure in a sample of A) H2(g) B) Br2(l) C) Ar(g) D) Ag(s) 83. A large sample of solid calcium sulfate is crushed into smaller pieces for testing. Which two physical properties are the same for both the large sample and one of the smaller pieces? A) mass and density B) mass and volume C) solubility and density D) solubility and volume 84. Solid ZnCl2 and liquid ZnCl2 have different A) empirical formulas B) formula masses C) ion ratios D) physical properties 85. Which equation represents a physical change? A) H2O(s) kj H2O( ) B) 2H2(g) + O2(g) 2H2O(g) kj C) H2(g) + I2(g) kj 2HI(g) D) N2(g) + 2O2(g) kj 2NO2(g) 86. Which process is a chemical change? A) melting of ice B) boiling of water C) subliming of ice D) decomposing of water Page 9

10 87. Object A at 40ºC and object B at 80ºC are placed in contact with each other. Which statement describes the heat flow between the objects? A) Heat flows from object A to object B. B) Heat flows from object B to object A. C) Heat flows in both directions between the objects. D) No heat flow occurs between the objects. 88. As ice melts at standard pressure, its temperature remains at 0 C until it has completely melted. Its potential energy A) decreases B) increases C) remains the same 89. Which sample of ethanol has particles with the highest average kinetic energy? A) 10.0 ml of ethanol at 25 C B) 10.0 ml of ethanol at 55 C C) ml of ethanol at 35 C D) ml of ethanol at 45 C 90. Which temperature is equal to 120. K? A) 153 C B) 120. C C) +293 C D) +393 C 91. Which list of the phases of H2O is arranged in order of increasing entropy? A) ice, steam, and liquid water B) ice, liquid water, and steam C) steam, liquid water, and ice D) steam, ice, and liquid water 92. Systems in nature tend to undergo changes toward A) lower energy and lower entropy B) lower energy and higher entropy C) higher energy and lower entropy D) higher energy and higher entropy Page 10

11 93. The graph below represents the uniform heating of a sample of a substance starting as a solid below its melting point. Which statement describes what happens to the energy of the particles of the sample during time interval DE? A) Average kinetic energy increases, and potential energy remains the same. B) Average kinetic energy decreases, and potential energy remains the same. C) Average kinetic energy remains the same, and potential energy increases. D) Average kinetic energy remains the same, and potential energy decreases 94. The graph below represents the heating curve of a substance that starts as a solid below its freezing point. What is the melting point of this substance? A) 30 C B) 55 C C) 90 C D) 120 C 95. What is the minimum amount of heat required to completely melt 20.0 grams of ice at its melting point? A) 20.0 J B) 83.6 J C) 6,680 J D) 45,200 J 96. The freezing point of bromine is A) 539 C B) 539 C C) 7 C D) 7 C 97. Which equation represents sublimation? A) I2(s) I2(g) B) I2(s) I2( ) C) I2( ) I2(g) D) I2( ) I2(s) 98. Hydrogen bonding is a type of A) strong covalent bond B) weak ionic bond C) strong intermolecular force D) weak intermolecular force 99. The relatively high boiling point of water is due to water having A) hydrogen bonding B) metallic bonding C) nonpolar covalent bonding D) strong ionic bonding 100. Which statement explains why Br2 is a liquid at STP and I2 is a solid at STP? A) Molecules of Br2 are polar, and molecules of I2 are nonpolar. B) Molecules of I2 are polar, and molecules of Br2 are nonpolar. C) Molecules of Br2 have stronger intermolecular forces than molecules of I2. D) Molecules of I2 have stronger intermolecular forces than molecules of Br2. Page 11

12 101. Which statement explains why H2O has a higher boiling point than N2? A) H2O has greater molar mass than N2. B) H2O has less molar mass than N2. C) H2O has stronger intermolecular forces then N2. D) H2O has weaker intermolecular forces than N Which formula represents a mixture? A) C6H12O6( ) B) C6H12O6(s) C) LiCl(aq) D) LiCl(s) 103. A mixture of crystals of salt and sugar is added to water and stirred until all solids have dissolved. Which statement best describes the resulting mixture? A) The mixture is homogeneous and can be separated by filtration. B) The mixture is homogeneous and cannot be separated by filtration. C) The mixture is heterogeneous and can be separated by filtration. D) The mixture is heterogeneous and cannot be separated by filtration Which of these terms refers to matter that could be heterogeneous? A) element B) mixture C) compound D) solution 105. Which sample of matter can be separated into different substances by physical means? A) LiCl(aq) B) LiCl(s) C) NH3(g) D) NH3( ) 106. Which property makes it possible to separate the oxygen and the nitrogen from a sample of liquefied air? A) boiling point B) conductivity C) hardness D) electronegativity 107. The modern model of the atom is based on the work of A) one scientist over a short period of time B) one scientist over a long period of time C) many scientists over a short period of time D) many scientists over a long period of time 108. The diagram below represents a portion of a 100-milliliter graduated cylinder. What is the reading of the meniscus? A) 35.0 ml B) 36.0 ml C) 44.0 ml D) 45.0 ml 109. Which quantity of heat is equal to 200. joules? A) 20.0 kj B) 2.00 kj C) kj D) kj 110. Which mass measurement contains four significant figures? A) g B) g C) 1003 g D) 3870 g 111. Expressed to the correct number of significant figures, the sum of two masses is grams. Which two masses produce this answer? A) g g B) g g C) g g D) g g Page 12

13 112. The diagram below represents a Celsius thermometer recording a certain temperature. What is the correct reading of the thermometer? A) 5 C B) 4.3 C C) 0.3 C D) 4 C 113. A student intended to make a salt solution with a concentration of 10.0 grams of solute per liter of solution. When the student s solution was analyzed, it was found to contain 8.90 grams of solute per liter of solution. What was the percent error in the concentration of the solution? A) 1.10% B) 8.90% C) 11.0% D) 18.9% Page 13

14 Answer Key H Midterm Review 1. C 37. C 73. D 109. C 2. C 38. D 74. C 110. C 3. B 39. C 75. B 111. C 4. A 40. D 76. D 112. B 5. A 41. C 77. B 113. C 6. A 42. D 78. D 7. C 43. D 79. C 8. A 44. C 80. D 9. D 45. C 81. C 10. D 46. A 82. D 11. B 47. A 83. C 12. B 48. B 84. D 13. C 49. C 85. A 14. A 50. D 86. D 15. C 51. C 87. B 16. C 52. A 88. B 17. A 53. D 89. B 18. D 54. D 90. A 19. C 55. B 91. B 20. D 56. D 92. B 21. A 57. D 93. C 22. B 58. A 94. B 23. C 59. A 95. C 24. D 60. B 96. D 25. C 61. A 97. A 26. A 62. D 98. C 27. C 63. A 99. A 28. A 64. B 100. D 29. D 65. B 101. C 30. C 66. D 102. C 31. C 67. C 103. B 32. A 68. A 104. B 33. A 69. A 105. A 34. D 70. A 106. A 35. C 71. D 107. D 36. B 72. D 108. A