EOC - Unit 4 Review - Genetics

Transcription

1 EOC - Unit 4 Review - Genetics Part A: Benchmark Standard SC.912.L.16.1 Use Mendel s laws of segregation and independent assortment to analyze patterns of inheritance. Also Assesses SC.912.L.16.2 Discuss observed inheritance patterns caused by various modes of inheritance, including dominant, recessive, codominant, sex-linked, polygenic, and multiple alleles. Benchmark Clarifications - Students will - use Mendel s laws of segregation and independent assortment to analyze patterns of inheritance. - identify, analyze, and/or predict inheritance patterns caused by various modes of inheritance. Content Limits Items referring to general dominant and recessive traits may address but will not assess the P and generations. F1 Items addressing dihybrid crosses or patterns that include codominance, incomplete dominance, multiple alleles, sex-linkage, or polygenic inheritance may assess the P and generations. F1 Part A: Sample Questions: 1) Colorblindness is a recessive, sex-linked trait located on the X chromosome. Gaspar is a colorblind man, and his wife Stephanie is a carrier for colorblindness. If they have a male child, what is the probability that their son will be colorblind? A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 100% 2) There are three alleles for blood type: A, B and O. Types A and B are co-dominant, and O is recessive. Based on phenotypes in the pedigree chart below, what is the genotype of the father, Ricky? A. AA B. AO C. AB D. OO 3) Gregor Mendel collected data on more than 28,000 pea plants in his research. Two traits he studied were seed color (yellow or green) and flower color (red or white). He found that the dominant traits are yellow seeds (Y) and red flowers (R). If Mendel crossed plants heterozygous for yellow seeds (Yy) and heterozygous for red flowers (Rr) with plants homozygous for green seeds (yy) and heterozygous for red flowers (Rr), what fraction of their offspring will have both white flowers and green seeds? A. 1/8 B. ¼ C. ½ D. ¾ 4) A hairline that comes to a point in the center of the forehead is called a widow's peak. Having a widow's peak is a dominant trait, while having a straight hairline is a recessive trait. Cate, a woman with a widow's peak, has two children with James, a man with a straight hairline like her father. What is the probability that their next child will have a straight hairline? A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% 5) Some traits are determined by a single gene; for example, presence of freckles (F) is a dominant trait, and lack of freckles (f) is recessive. Having detached earlobes (D) is a dominant trait, and having attached earlobes (d) is recessive. Pedro and his wife Rosa have detached earlobes, but Rosa has freckles and Pedro does not. Their daughter Jessica has attached earlobes and does not have freckles. Which of the following genotypes must Rosa have? A. FFDD B. FFDd C. FfDD D. FfDd 6) Four major blood phenotypes (A, B, AB, and O) are determined by three alleles: A, B, and O. A person with type A has a certain protein on their blood cells' membranes. A person with type B has a different protein appearing on their cells' membranes. Cells from type AB have both proteins, but cells from type O, which is recessive, has neither protein. This example illustrates which of the following phenomena? A. codominance B. complete dominance C. partial dominance D. polygenic inheritance 7) A goat that is heterozygous for long hair (Hh) and curved horns (Cc) mates with a goat that is homozygous for short hair (hh) and straight horns (cc). Which of the following genotypes is impossible for their offspring to have? A. HhCc B. HHCc C. hhcc D. hhcc

2 8) Coat color in cats is polygenic. An autosomal gene codes for white color, and a sex-linked gene codes for black or orange color. The sexlinked gene is codominant, which can result in a patchy calico coat. Based on this information, which of the following is impossible to find? A. a white and orange male cat B. a black and orange male cat C. a black and orange female cat D. a black, orange, and white female cat 9) Scientists have introduced a color gene into some zebra fish to glow under fluorescent or black light. Three alleles were created: red (R), orange (O) and green (G). The fluorescent colors are dominant in the golden-colored wild type. A fish with a red phenotype is mated with a wild-type fish. What is the chance that their offspring are red? A. 0% B. 25% C. 50% D. 75% 10) Red albino corn snakes lack the dominant black pigment trait (B). One homozygous wild-type snake is mated with one homozygous albino snake. What percent of the second generation will appear albino? A. 25% B. 50% C. 75% D. 100% 11) Hemophilia is a sex-linked, recessive trait. Which of the following describes the probability of hemophilia in the offspring of a man who does not have hemophilia and a woman who is a heterozygous carrier? A. There is a 25% chance that their sons will have hemophilia. B. There is a 100% chance that their sons will have hemophilia. C. There is a 0% chance that their daughters will have hemophilia. D. There is a 50% chance that their daughters will have hemophilia. Part B: Benchmark Standard SC.912.L Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis and relate to the processes of sexual and asexual reproduction and their consequences for genetic variation. Also Assesses: SC.912.L.16.8 Explain the relationship between mutation, cell cycle, and uncontrolled cell growth potentially resulting in cancer. SC.912.L Describe the cell cycle, including the process of mitosis. Explain the role of mitosis in the formation of new cells and its importance in maintaining chromosome number during asexual reproduction. SC.912.L Describe the process of meiosis, including independent assortment and crossing over. Explain how reduction division results in the formation of haploid gametes or spores. Benchmark Clarifications - Students will: - differentiate the processes of mitosis and meiosis. - describe the role of mitosis in asexual reproduction, and/or the role of meiosis in sexual reproduction, including how these processes may contribute to or limit genetic variation. - describe specific events occurring in each of the stages of the cell cycle and/or phases of mitosis, including cytokinesis. - explain how mitosis forms new cells and its role in maintaining chromosome number during asexual reproduction. - relate the development of cancer (uncontrolled growth) to mutations that affect the proteins that regulate the cell cycle. - describe the process of meiosis, including independent assortment and crossing over. - explain how meiosis results in the formation of haploid gametes or spores. Part B: Sample Questions: 1) Some organisms are capable of reproducing asexually through processes such as budding or parthenogenesis. What is an advantage of asexual production for an organism? A. It allows organisms to increase population rapidly. B. It allows haploid cells to unite to produce a zygote. C. It allows for greater genetic diversity within a species. D. It allows crossing over to take place during replication. 2) Mitosis and meiosis are processes that occur in an organism during reproduction. Which of the following is a result of mitosis? A. two identical daughter cells B. four haploid cells that have genetic variation C. uncontrolled cell division in the form of cancer cells D. a single diploid cell that is genetically identical to the parent cell 3) Mitosis and meiosis are both processes involved in reproduction. Which statement correctly compares mitosis and meiosis? A. Mitosis and meiosis both produce genetic variation within their daughter cells. B. Mitosis results in the production of two genetically identical diploid cells and meiosis produces four haploid cells. C. Mitosis and meiosis are both divided into only four distinct phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and interphase. D. Mitosis results in the production of two genetically identical diploid cells and meiosis produces four genetically identical haploid cells.

3 4) A scientist is developing a potential treatment for cancer. She grows cells in hundreds of petri dishes and exposes the dishes to environments that are known to cause cancer. After exposure, the scientist determines that some of the petri dishes have cancer cells. What factor do all the petri dishes that contain cancer cells have in common? A. All the petri dishes with cancer cells have a disrupted cell cycle. B. All the petri dishes with cancer cells have been exposed to tobacco smoke. C. All the petri dishes with cancer cells could be treated successfully if they receive the same treatment. D. All the petri dishes with cancer cells have genetically identical cells that make them susceptible to cancer. 5) In order to survive, an organism must have the correct number of chromosomes. To maintain a consistent number of chromosomes within a species, which of the following must an organism's germ cells do? A. undergo mitosis B. undergo meiosis C. become diploid cells D. produce genetically identical offspring 6) Sponges are important in aquatic ecology and they are capable of reproducing both sexually and asexually. What is an advantage to a species, such as the sponge, of being able to reproduce sexually? A. Sexual reproduction increases genetic variation within a species. B. Sexual reproduction produces offspring that are genetically identical to the parents. C. Sexual reproduction allows the zygote to have twice the number of chromosomes of the parent. D. Sexual reproduction produces a genetically improved zygote from the mutation of the parents' haploid gametes. 7) Meiosis and mitosis are processes that occur in an organism during reproduction. The process of meiosis results in which of the following? A. two diploid cells B. four haploid cells C. four genetically different diploid cells D. two genetically identical haploid daughter cells 8) Meiosis and mitosis are both processes involved in reproduction. Which statement does NOT describe the process of meiosis? A. Meiosis allows gametes to have a haploid number of chromosomes. B. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes per cell is reduced by half. C. During meiosis II, chromosomes replicate and crossing over allows genetic variation within the species. D. Prior to meiosis I, each chromosome is replicated, and by the end of meiosis II, the number of chromosomes is reduced. 9) If an experimental drug aims to prevent and inhibit the multiplication of cancer cells, which of the following would be the best approach for scientists to take in developing the anticancer drug? A. The drug should focus on stimulating weakened cells to grow and divide. B. The drug should prevent meiosis, but also increase mitosis in the cancer cells. C. The drug should stimulate the cells to continue to divide, but at an increased rate. D. The drug should interrupt the cell cycle and prevent cell division in the cancer cells 10) During meiosis I, cells begin to divide in a way that is very similar to the process of mitosis. However, what major event takes place in meiosis I that does not occur in mitosis? A. crossing over B. chromosome replication C. interphase D. mutation 11) Mitosis and meiosis are processes involved in cellular reproduction. Which of the following describes an event that results from mitosis but NOT meiosis? A. two stages of cell division B. replication of cellular genetic material C. daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell D. four daughter cells that are produced from each parent cell Part C: Additional Sample Unit 4 Review Questions: 1. What advantage do sexually reproducing organisms have over asexually reproducing organisms? A. genetic variation B. genetic stability C. increased fertilization rate D. increased reproductive rate 2. Which term best describes the type of cell division in which parent cells produce daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cells? A. Mitosis B. Meiosis C. Spermatogenesis D. Oogenesis 3. What is the primary cause of variation in the offspring of sexually reproducing organisms? A. cytoplasmic division B. environmental changes C. mutation D. recombination of alleles 4. A plant nursery only grew one type of tomato plant. All of their tomato plants died from the same disease. What was most likely true of the tomato plant population? A. They had a lot of resistance to disease. B. They had a few plants that were resistant to the disease. C. They had too much variation in their genes. D. They had little variation in their genes. 5.How are sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction different from each other? A. sexual reproduction requires two parents and asexual reproduction requires only one parent B. asexual reproduction requires two parents and sexual reproduction requires only one parent C. mutation rates are lower in sexual reproduction than in asexual reproduction D. asexual reproduction occurs only in multicellular organisms 6. Which description best identifies characteristics of asexual reproduction? A. one parent, union of gametes, offspring genetically identical to parent B. one parent, no union of gametes, offspring genetically identical to the parent C. two parents, union of gametes, offspring similar to but not genetically identical to parents D. two parents, no union of gametes, offspring genetically identical to the parents 7. A clone is the product of: A) asexual reproduction B) sexual reproduction C) mitosis D) meiosis E.) A and C F.) B and D 8. A single-celled eukaryotic amoeba is dividing into 2 cells, each new cell becomes an individual organism. This is- A. Budding B) asexual reproduction C) sexual reproduction D) fragmentation E) binary fission

4 9. Sexual reproduction favors A. Genetic stability B. highly successful species C. stable populations D. beneficial recombination E. genetic diversity 10. Sexual and asexual reproduction are alike in that: A) they both involve two parents B) they both require meiosis to complete the reproductive cycle C) they can both occur in multicellular organisms D) they both give rise to genetically distinct offspring 11. Which of the following is not a form of asexual reproduction? A. Fragmentation B. budding C. parthenogenesis D. syngamy E. binary fission 12.Which process is an example of asexual reproduction? A. An amoeba divides in half to form two amoebas. B. bee transfers pollen from one flower to another. C. Female fish deposits eggs on a rock, then a male fish releases sperm on them. D. Earthworms exchange sperm 13.Mitosis and meiosis are processes involved in cellular reproduction. Which of the following describes an event that results from mitosis but NOT meiosis? A. two stages of cell division B. four daughter cells that are produced from each parent cell. C. replication of cellular genetic material D. daughter cells that are identical to the parent cell 14.Which of the following phrases best describes cancer? A. absence of cyclins in the DNA B. multiple gene mutations on a chromosome of DNA C. uncontrolled cell growth caused by mutations in genes that control the cell cycle D. presence of genetic defects caused by hereditary disorder 15. Which process is correctly matched with the phase in which it occurs? A) G1 phase, DNA replication (B) G2 phase, organelles copied C) S phase, cell division (D) M phase, cell growth 16. Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence? A. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase (B) interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase C. interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase (D) prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase 17. The diagram below shows the phases of Mitosis. Which diagram represents the anaphase? A. 1 B. 2 C.4 D What is the function of the structure labeled A in the drawing above A. carry genetic information B. hold chromatids together C. anchor the spindle fibers D. pull chromatids apart 19. What is the structure labeled B in the drawing? A. Chromatids B. spindle fibers C. centrioles D. Centromeres 20. How many chromosomes would there be in each newly formed nucleus in a human cell at the end of mitosis? A. 12 B. 23 C. 46 D During which phase of meiosis do homologous chromosomes align as tetrads in the middle of the spindle? A. Prophase B. Cytokinesis C. Metaphase D. Interphase 22. What term is used to describe pairs of chromosomes for the same traits? A. Homologous B. homozygous C. heterozygous D.sex 23. When mutations cause a failure in the regulation of cell growth and development, what condition might occur? A. normal mitosis B. cell plates form C. cancer D. Meiosis 24. Mitosis, a stage in the cell cycle, is important for what reason? A. reduction of the cell s chromosome number B. removal of diseased cells C. growth and repair of an organism D. division of the cytoplasm 25. Which description best fits the activity of a cell during interphase? A. the cell grows and chromosomes replicate B. the cell differentiates to have a new function C. cell splits in two, but with half the normal of chromosomes D. the cell splits in two 26. If a gamete of an organism has 10 chromosomes; how many chromosomes would be in each of its normal body cells? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D A cell with 20 chromosomes undergoes mitosis, how many chromosomes will each of the 2 new cells have? A. 10 B.20 C. 30 D A cloned plant has a diploid chromosome number of 12. What is the diploid chromosome number of the plant cell that was used to produce the cloned plant? A 6 B 12 C 18 D Which statement concerning both mitosis and meiosis is correct? (A) meiosis produces 4 haploid cells while mitosis produces 2 diploid cells (B) meiosis produces 4 diploid cells while mitosis produces 2 haploid cells. (C) meiosis maintains the ploidy level, while mitosis reduces it (D) prophase I of mitosis results in the formation of a tetrad but not in prophase I of meiosis 30. If gametes have 8 chromosomes resulting from meiosis how many chromosomes will the body cell have. A. 4 B. 8 C. 16 D. 2 E. 1

5 31. Which of the following phases of mitosis is represented by the diagram below? A. Prophase B. metaphase C. anaphase D. telophase 32. If a cell with 32 chromosomes divides by meiosis, how many chromosomes will each nucleus contain at telophase 2? (Assume cytokinesis has occurred.) A. 64 B. 48 C.32 D. 16 E) The reduction of the chromosome number during meiosis is most important for A. keeping the amount of DNA in the cell at a minimum level B. preventing the nucleus from becoming larger with each cell division C. maintaining the chromosome number during sexual reproduction D. allowing the growth of the cell without increasing the DNA content 34. Which of the following are mismatched A) haploid - n B) somatic cells - 2n C) zygote - n D) sperm cell - n E) gamete - n 35. Cytokinesis refers: A. division of the entire cell B. division of the nucleus C. division of the cytoplasm D. reduction in the number of chromosomes 36. Germ-line cells: A. produce gametes. B. are haploid. C. usually undergo mitosis. D. are special somatic cells 37.If a zygote has 4 chromosomes, the somatic cells formed from it have chromosomes. A. 4 B. 8 C. 2 D. 1 E Unlike gametes, body cells are called - A. somatic B) haploid C) semantic D) synergic E) sematic 39. If a somatic human cell were just about to divide, how many chromatids would it have? A) 92 B) 46 C) 23 D) The ovum of a rabbit contains 22 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in the somatic cells of a rabbit? Slide 5/326 A.11 B) 22 C) 44 D) In a diploid cell containing 10 chromosomes, meiosis results in the daughter cells containing: chromosomes. Slide 5/pp326 A.5 B. 10 C. 20 D DNA replication occurs in: A. prophase of both mitosis and meiosis B. the S phase of interphase C. the G1 phase of interphase in reproductive cells only D. metaphase of meiosis only 43. How many pairs of autosomes do humans have? A. 23 B.22 C. 2 D Meiosis takes place in which of the following organs? A. Testes B. Lungs C. Heart D. Stomach E. Skin 45. If 2n = 8, for a particular cell, then the chromosome number in egg cell after meiosis would be: A. 12 B. 10 C. 8 D Crossing over occurs during which phase of meiosis? (A) Prophase I (B) Metaphase I (C) Metaphase II (D) Anaphase I (E) Telophase II 47. Which one of the following is not a function of meiosis in humans? A. production of eggs B. production of sperm C. decreasing the number of chromosomes D. multiplication of body cells 48. Crossing over: A) is the exchange of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes. B) occurs during prophase II C) produces a tetrad that contains one or more chiasmata. D) none of the above 49. Which genetic abnormality can be identified through a karyotype chart: A. point mutation B. recessive allele C. extra chromosome + trisomy D. sex-linked allele 50. In pea plants, tall plants are dominant to short plants. If two heterozygous tall plants are crossed, what percent of the offspring will probably be short? A. 50% B. 25% C. 0% D. 75% 51. Some flowers show incomplete dominance. If RR = white and R R = red, which phenotypic ratio would be expected in the offspring of two pink flowers? A)1 red : 2 pink : 1 white B) 0 red : 4 pink : 0 white C)3 red : 0 pink : 1 white D) 4 red : 0 pink : 0 white 52. In pea plants, green is a recessive trait. A green pea plant would have: A. two recessive allele B. two dominant allele C. one dominant allele and one recessive allele D. not enough information to be determined 53. Which is responsible for most genotypic and phenotypic variation among humans? A. Meiosis B. budding C. mitosis D. regeneration 54. In the Punnett square shown below, which of the following is true about the offspring resulting from the cross? T=tall and t=short T t T TT Tt t Tt tt A. About half are expected to be short. B. All are expected to be short. C. About three fourths are expected to be tall. D. All are expected to be tall.

6 55.What is the primary cause of variation in the offspring of sexually reproducing organisms? A. cytoplasmic division B. environmental changes C. mutation D. recombination of alleles 56. Which of the following crosses does not follow Mendel s law of segregation? A. Two tall pea plants (Tt x Tt) are expected to produce some tall offspring plants. B. Two tall pea plants (Tt x Tt) are expected to produce some short offspring plants. C. A tall pea plant and a short pea plant (Tt x tt) are expected to produce all tall offspring plants. D. A tall pea plant and a short pea plant (TT x tt) are expected to produce all tall offspring plants. 57 Most sex-linked, recessive traits including hemophilia and color blindness appear in males. This phenomenon is best explained by which statement? A. Males have an X chromosome with dominant genes. B. Most of the genes on the X and Y chromosomes of males are recessive. C. In males, the recessive sex-linked genes appear only on the Y chromosome. D. In males, the Y chromosome lacks the genes needed to mask the recessive genes on the X chromosome. 58. The sex chromosomes of normal females are: pp 393 ( A.) X and Y (B.) Y and Y (C.) X and X (D) none of the above 59. A karyotype is a: A. general term for any type of chromosome B. type of abnormal chromosome that is associated with Down's syndrome C) picture of an individual's chromosomes arranged in a standardized way D) A diagram of inheritance of traits 60. Normal humans have pairs of autosomes and pair(s) of sex chromosomes pp393 A. 23 and 23 B. 23 and 2 C. 46 and 1 D. 22 and 1