16) What proportion of the population is probably heterozygous (Aa) for this trait? A) 0.05 B) 0.25 C) 0.50 D) 0.75 E) 1.00

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1 AP Biology Summer Assignment Evolution Students may use the text, internet, study guide, and any student taking the class next year to help in answering the questions. Please send the answers numbered 1-50 on a word document saved in rich text form to lambdinapbiology@gmail.com 1) What was the prevailing notion prior to the time of Lyell and Darwin? A) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations are unchanging. B) Earth is a few thousand years old, and populations gradually change. C) Earth is millions of years old, and populations rapidly change. D) Earth is millions of years old, and populations are unchanging. E) Earth is millions of years old, and populations gradually change. 2) During a study session about evolution, one of your fellow students remarks, "The giraffe stretched its neck while reaching for higher leaves; its offspring inherited longer necks as a result." Which statement is most likely to be helpful in correcting this student's misconception? A) Characteristics acquired during an organism's life are generally not passed on through genes. B) Spontaneous mutations can result in the appearance of new traits. C) Only favorable adaptations have survival value. D) Disuse of an organ may lead to its eventual disappearance. E) Overproduction of offspring leads to a struggle for survival. 3) Which of these naturalists synthesized a concept of natural selection independently of Darwin? A) Charles Lyell B) Gregor Mendel C) Alfred Wallace D) John Henslow E) Thomas Malthus 4) Which of the following represents an idea that Darwin learned from the writings of Thomas Malthus? A) All species are fixed in the form in which they are created. B) Populations tend to increase at a faster rate than their food supply normally allows. C) Earth changed over the years through a series of catastrophic upheavals. D) The environment is responsible for natural selection. E) Earth is more than 10,000 years old.

2 5) Which statement about natural selection is most correct? A) Adaptations beneficial in one habitat should generally be beneficial in all other habitats as well. B) Different species that occupy the same habitat will adapt to that habitat by undergoing the same genetic changes. C) Adaptations beneficial at one time should generally be beneficial during all other times as well. D) Well-adapted individuals leave more offspring, and thus contribute more to the next generation's gene pool, than do poorly adapted individuals. E) Natural selection is the sole means by which populations can evolve. 6) DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Today, instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects. Which of these would have been required for this pest eradication effort to be successful in the long run? A) Larger doses of DDT should have been applied. B) All habitats should have received applications of DDT at about the same time. C) The frequency of DDT application should have been higher. D) None of the individual insects should have possessed genomes that made them resistant to DDT. E) DDT application should have been continual. 7) Of the following anatomical structures, which is homologous to the wing of a bird? A) Dorsal fin of a shark B) Hindlimb of a kangaroo C) Wing of a butterfly D) Tail fin of a flying fish E) Flipper of a whale 8) Which of the following pieces of evidence most strongly supports the common origin of all life on Earth? A) All organisms require energy. B) All organisms use essentially the same genetic code. C) All organisms reproduce. D) All organisms show heritable variation. E) All organisms have undergone evolution. 9) Ichthyosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs. Fossils show us that they had dorsal fins and tails, as do fish, even though their closest relatives were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are A) homologous. B) examples of convergent evolution. C) adaptations to a common environment. D) A and C only E) B and C only

3 10) The theory of evolution is most accurately described as A) an educated guess about how species originate. B) one possible explanation, among several scientific alternatives, about how species have come into existence. C) an opinion that some scientists hold about how living things change over time. D) an overarching explanation, supported by much evidence, for how populations change over time. E) an idea about how acquired characteristics are passed on to subsequent generations. 11) Which of these is a statement that Darwin would have rejected? A) Environmental change plays a role in evolution. B) The smallest entity that can evolve is an individual organism. C) Individuals can acquire new characteristics as they respond to new environments or situations. D) Inherited variation in a population is a necessary precondition for natural selection to operate. E) Natural populations tend to produce more offspring than the environment can support. 12) Which definition of evolution would have been most foreign to Charles Darwin during his lifetime? A) change in gene frequency in gene pools B) descent with modification C) the gradual change of a population's heritable traits over generations D) populations becoming better adapted to their environments over the course of generations E) the appearance of new varieties and new species with the passage of time 13) Which of these evolutionary agents is most consistent at causing populations to become better suited to their environments over the course of generations? A) Mutation B) Non-random mating C) Gene flow D) Natural selection E) Genetic drift 14) Each of the following has a better chance of influencing gene frequencies in small populations than in large populations, but which one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition for its occurrence? A) Genetic drift B) Non-random mating C) Mutation D) Natural selection E) Gene flow

4 Use the following information to answer questions below. A large population of laboratory animals has been allowed to breed randomly for a number of generations. After several generations, 25% of the animals display a recessive trait (aa), the same percentage as at the beginning of the breeding program. The rest of the animals show the dominant phenotype, with heterozygotes indistinguishable from the homozygous dominants. 15) What is the estimated frequency of allele A in the gene pool? A) 0.05 B) 0.25 C) 0.50 D) 0.75 E) ) What proportion of the population is probably heterozygous (Aa) for this trait? A) 0.05 B) 0.25 C) 0.50 D) 0.75 E) ) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, if the frequency of the allele a is 0.4. What is the percentage of the population that is homozygous for this allele? A) 4 B) 16 C) 32 D) 36 E) 40 18) In a Hardy-Weinberg population with two alleles, A and a, if the frequency of allele a is 0.2. What is the frequency of individuals with Aa genotype? A) 0.20 B) 0.32 C) 0.42 D) 0.80 E) Genotype frequency cannot be determined from the information provided. 19) Over time, the movement of people on Earth has steadily increased. This has altered the course of human evolution by increasing A) non-random mating. B) geographic isolation. C) genetic drift. D) mutations. E) gene flow.

5 20) If the frequency of a particular allele that is present in a small, isolated population of alpine plants decreases due to a landslide that leaves an even smaller remnant of surviving plants bearing this allele, then what has occurred? A) a bottleneck B) genetic drift C) founder's effect D) A and B only E) A, B, and C 21) The Darwinian fitness of an individual is measured most directly by A) the number of its offspring that survive to reproduce. B) the number of "good genes" it possesses. C) the number of mates it attracts. D) its physical strength. E) how long it lives. 22) A certain species of land snail exists as either a cream color or a solid brown color. Intermediate individuals are relatively rare. Which of the following terms best describes this? A) artificial selection B) directional selection C) stabilizing selection D) disruptive selection E) sexual selection 23) In seed cracker finches from Cameroon, small- and large-billed birds specialize in cracking soft and hard seeds, respectively. If long-term climatic change resulted in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate on the finch population? A) disruptive selection B) directional selection C) stabilizing selection D) sexual selection E) No selection would operate because the population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. 24) Which of the various species concepts distinguishes two species based on the degree of genetic exchange between their gene pools? A) phylogenetic B) ecological C) biological D) morphological 25) Which species concept is currently most popular among most biologists? A) phylogenetic B) ecological C) biological D) morphological

6 26) What was the species concept most used by Linnaeus? A) biological B) morphological C) ecological D) phylogenetic Use the following information to answer questions below. Several closely related frog species of the genus Rana are found in the forests of the southeastern United States. The species boundaries are maintained by reproductive barriers. In each case, match the various descriptions of frogs below with the appropriate reproductive barrier listed. 27) Males of one species sing only when its predators are absent; males of another species sing only when its predators are present. A) behavioral B) gametic C) habitat D) temporal E) mechanical 28) One species mates at the season when daylight is increasing from 13 hours to 13 hours, 15 minutes; another species mates at the season when daylight is increasing from 14 hours to 14 hours, 15 minutes. A) behavioral B) gametic C) habitat D) temporal E) mechanical 29) Two species of frogs belonging to the same genus occasionally mate, but the offspring fail to develop and hatch. What is the mechanism for keeping the two frog species separate? A) the postzygotic barrier called hybrid inviability B) the postzygotic barrier called hybrid breakdown C) the prezygotic barrier called hybrid sterility D) gametic isolation E) adaptation 30) A defining characteristic of allopatric speciation is A) the appearance of new species in the midst of old ones. B) asexually reproducing populations. C) geographic isolation. D) artificial selection. E) large populations.

7 31) Which of the following would be a position held by an adherent of the punctuated equilibrium theory? A) A new species forms most of its unique features as it comes into existence and then changes little for the duration of its existence. B) One should expect to find many transitional fossils left by organisms in the process of forming new species. C) Given enough time, most existing species will gradually evolve into new species. D) Natural selection is unimportant as a mechanism of evolution. 32) Which gas was least abundant in Earth's early atmosphere, prior to 2 billion years ago? A) O 2 B) CO 2 C) CH 4 D) H 2 O E) NH 3 33) In their laboratory simulations of the early Earth, Miller and Urey observed the abiotic synthesis of A) genetic systems. B) complex organic polymers. C) DNA. D) liposomes. E) amino acids. 34) Which of the following is the correct sequence of these events in the origin of life? I. formation of protobionts II. synthesis of organic monomers III. synthesis of organic polymers IV. formation of DNA-based genetic systems A) I, II, III, IV B) I, III, II, IV C) II, III, I, IV D) IV, III, I, II E) III, II, I, IV 35) Which is a defining characteristic that all protobionts had in common? A) the ability to synthesize enzymes B) a surrounding membrane or membrane-like structure C) RNA genes D) a nucleus E) the ability to replicate RNA

8 36) Which free-living cells were the earliest contributors to the formation of Earth's oxidizing atmosphere? A) cyanobacteria B) chloroplasts C) mitochondria D) seaweeds E) endosymbionts 37) What probably accounts for the switch to DNA-based genetic systems during the evolution of life on Earth? A) DNA is chemically more stable and replicates with fewer errors (mutations) than RNA. B) Only DNA can replicate during cell division. C) RNA is too involved with translation of proteins and cannot provide multiple functions. D) DNA forms the rod-shaped chromosomes necessary for cell division. E) Replication of RNA occurs too slowly. 38) The observation that tusks were limited to males in several species, and were apparently not used in food-gathering, is evidence that the tusks probably A) were used by males during the sex act. B) served as heat-dissipation structures. C) are homologous to claws. D) were insignificant to the survival and/or reproduction of dicynodonts. E) were maintained as the result of sexual selection. 39) The scientific discipline concerned with naming organisms is called A) systematics. B) cladistics. C) binomial nomenclature. D) taxonomy. E) phylocode 40) Which of these illustrates the correct representation of the binomial scientific name for the African lion? A) Panthera leo B) panthera leo C) Panthera leo D) Panthera Leo E) Panthera leo

9 41) A phylogenetic tree that is "rooted" is one A) that extends back to the origin of life on Earth. B) at whose base is located the common ancestor of all taxa depicted on that tree. C) that illustrates the rampant gene swapping that occurred early in life's history. D) that indicates our uncertainty about the evolutionary relationships of the taxa depicted on the tree. E) with very few branch points. 42) The correct sequence, from the most to the least comprehensive, of the taxonomic levels listed here is A) family, phylum, class, kingdom, order, species, and genus. B) kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species. C) kingdom, phylum, order, class, family, genus, and species. D) phylum, kingdom, order, class, species, family, and genus. E) phylum, family, class, order, kingdom, genus, and species. 43) The best classification system is that which most closely A) unites organisms that possess similar morphologies. B) conforms to traditional, Linnaean taxonomic practices. C) reflects evolutionary history. D) corroborates the classification scheme in use at the time of Charles Darwin. E) reflects the basic separation of prokaryotes from eukaryotes. 44) Which of the following pairs are the best examples of homologous structures? A) bat wing and human hand B) owl wing and hornet wing C) porcupine quill and cactus spine D) bat forelimb and bird wing E) Australian mole and North American mole 45) Some molecular data place the giant panda in the bear family (Ursidae) but place the lesser panda in the raccoon family (Procyonidae). Consequently, the morphological similarities of these two species are probably due to A) inheritance of acquired characteristics. B) sexual selection. C) inheritance of shared derived characters. D) possession of analogous structures. E) possession of shared primitive characters.

10 Use Figure 26.1 to answer the following questions # Figure ) A common ancestor for both species C and E could be at position number A) 1. B) 2. C) 3. D) 4. E) 5. 47) The two extant species that are most closely related to each other are A) A and B. B) B and C. C) C and D. D) D and E. E) E and A.

11 The following question 48 refers to the hypothetical patterns of taxonomic hierarchy shown in Figure Figure ) Which of the following numbers represents a polyphyletic taxon? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) more than one of these 49. The lungs of a reptile and the air bladder of a fish. A) analogous structures B) homologous structures C) divergent evolution D) convergent evolution E) vestigial structures 50. Two fossil vertebrates, each representing a different class, are found in the undisturbed rock layers of a cliff. One fossil is a representative of the earlier amphibians. The other fossil, found in an older rock layer below the amphibian is most likely to be A) a dinosaur B) a bird C) an insectivorous mammal D) a snake E) a fish